Question map
Which one of the following statements with regard to ‘Direct Action Day’ is correct?
Explanation
Direct Action Day, observed on August 16, 1946, was a call by the Muslim League to press for the demand of Pakistan [c1][c3]. The resulting communal violence, known as the 'Great Calcutta Killings', triggered a chain reaction of riots across northern and eastern India [c5]. Specifically, the violence spread from Calcutta to rural Bengal and subsequently to Bihar in October 1946 [c3][t1]. In Bihar, Hindu mobs targeted Muslim families, partly fueled by rumors and tensions stemming from the earlier Calcutta and Noakhali riots [t1]. While Huseyn Shaheed Suhrawardy was the Chief Minister of Bengal and addressed the League's rally in Calcutta, the call for Direct Action was officially issued by the Muslim League Working Committee under Jinnah, not Suhrawardy presiding over the day itself [t2][t5]. The Congress Party did not endorse the day; rather, it was a protest against the Cabinet Mission Plan which the Congress had initially engaged with [c1][t4].
Sources
- [1] History , class XII (Tamilnadu state board 2024 ed.) > Chapter 6: Communalism in Nationalist Politics > 6.6 Direct Action Day > p. 80
- [2] THEMES IN INDIAN HISTORY PART III, History CLASS XII (NCERT 2025 ed.) > Chapter 11: MAHATMA GANDHI AND THE NATIONALIST MOVEMENT > Satara, 1943 > p. 304
- [3] THEMES IN INDIAN HISTORY PART III, History CLASS XII (NCERT 2025 ed.) > Chapter 12: FRAMING THE CONSTITUTION > 1. A Tumultuous Time > p. 317
- [4] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1946_Bihar_riots