Question map
Which one of the following is not correct about the Indian Independence Act, 1947?
Explanation
The Indian Independence Act of 1947 was primarily a mechanism for the transfer of power and the partition of British India into two independent dominions, India and Pakistan [2]. While it provided for the establishment of these dominions [4] and empowered their respective Constituent Assemblies with sovereign, unlimited power to frame any constitution and even repeal British acts [5], it did not lay down the 'basic framework' of the Indian Constitution. Instead, the Act stipulated that until new constitutions were framed, the dominions would be governed as nearly as possible in accordance with the Government of India Act, 1935 [1]. The basic framework of the Indian Constitution was actually derived from the Government of India Act, 1935, and the subsequent deliberations of the Constituent Assembly. The Bill was indeed introduced on July 4 and received Royal Assent on July 18, 1947 [3].
Sources
- [2] Rajiv Ahir. A Brief History of Modern India (2019 ed.). SPECTRUM. > Chapter 25: Independence with Partition > Indian Independence Act > p. 495
- [4] Indian Polity, M. Laxmikanth(7th ed.) > Chapter 2: Making of the Constitution > Changes by the Independence Act > p. 13
- [1] Rajiv Ahir. A Brief History of Modern India (2019 ed.). SPECTRUM. > Chapter 35: Making of the Constitution for India > Constituent Assembly > p. 615
- [5] Laxmikanth, M. Indian Polity. 7th ed., McGraw Hill. > Chapter 2: Making of the Constitution > Changes by the Independence Act > p. 13
- [3] Introduction to the Constitution of India, D. D. Basu (26th ed.). > Chapter 2: THE MAKING OF THE CONSTITUTION > p. 18