Question map
Not attempted
Correct
Incorrect
★
Bookmarked
Loading…
Q64
(IAS/2007)
Polity & Governance › Judiciary › Judges removal and impeachment
Answer Verified
Consider the following statements: 1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court. 2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Result
Your answer:
—
·
Correct:
A
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. A High Court judge can be removed only by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a special majority on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity; thus the manner and grounds mirror those for a Supreme Court judge [1]. Statement 2 is incorrect. Retired permanent judges of a High Court are prohibited from pleading or acting in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court and the other High Courts — so there is not an absolute bar on all courts/authorities within India [2]. Therefore only statement 1 is correct.
Sources
- [1] Indian Polity, M. Laxmikanth(7th ed.) > Chapter 34: High Court > TENURE, REMOVAL AND TRANSFER > p. 355
- [2] Indian Polity, M. Laxmikanth(7th ed.) > Chapter 34: High Court > INDEPENDENCE OF HIGH COURT > p. 357
How others answered
Each bar shows the % of students who chose that option.
Green bar = correct answer, blue outline = your choice.
Community Performance
Out of everyone who attempted this question.
56%
got it right
✓ Thank you! We'll review this.