In economics, if a diagram has a line passing through the origin and has 45 angle with either axis and it is asserted that along the line X = Y, what is tacitly assumed?

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Q: (CDS-I/2020)
In economics, if a diagram has a line passing through the origin and has 45° angle with either axis and it is asserted that along the line X = Y, what is tacitly assumed?

question_subject: 

Maths

question_exam: 

CDS-I

stats: 

0,8,15,8,8,2,5

keywords: 

{'pure numbers': [0, 0, 0, 1], 'pure number': [0, 0, 0, 1], 'axis': [0, 0, 0, 1], 'angle': [0, 0, 1, 0], 'economics': [0, 0, 0, 1], 'different units': [0, 0, 0, 1], 'diagram': [0, 3, 2, 5], 'variables': [0, 1, 1, 1], 'line': [4, 1, 3, 4], 'variable': [0, 0, 0, 2], 'same unit': [0, 0, 0, 2]}

In the given question, if there is a line passing through the origin at a 45° angle, and it is stated that along this line X=Y, then it is tacitly assumed that both variables are in the same unit. Here`s why:

Option 1: Both variables being pure numbers is incorrect because although a pure number can be equal to another pure number, it is not necessary for this to be the case for the line to represent X=Y.

Option 2: The correct assumption is that both variables are in the same units. This is because for an equation like X=Y to be represented on a graph, the units of measurement of both variables must be the same.

Option 3: If the variables were in different units, one could not accurately represent the equation X=Y on a graph as it would distort the ratio or relationship between X and Y.

Option 4: Having at least one variable as a pure number is not a necessary condition for the line to represent X=Y.

So, in conclusion, for a line in an economic diagram to represent X=Y, both X and Y need to be measured in the same unit.

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