The given pie charts show the proportion of literates and illiterates in a country, in the year 1970 and 1990 and also the proportion of males (M) and females (F) among the literates. Which one of the following statements can be said to be beyond any doub

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Q: 137 (IAS/1996)
The given pie charts show the proportion of literates and illiterates in a country, in the year 1970 and 1990 and also the proportion of males (M) and females (F) among the literates.
Which one of the following statements can be said to be beyond any doubt ?

question_subject: 

Maths

question_exam: 

IAS

stats: 

0,7,15,4,7,4,7

keywords: 

{'literate males': [0, 1, 0, 0], 'male literates': [0, 1, 0, 0], 'female literates': [0, 1, 0, 0], 'male literacy': [0, 1, 0, 0], 'literates': [1, 1, 0, 1], 'proportion': [1, 1, 2, 8], 'illiterates': [0, 1, 0, 0], 'total population': [1, 0, 0, 2], 'pie charts': [0, 1, 0, 0], 'ratio': [1, 0, 1, 12], 'females': [4, 3, 4, 1], 'males': [0, 0, 0, 1], 'women': [9, 8, 22, 46]}

This question is based on the interpretation of data shown in the pie charts.

Option 1 suggests that half of the illiterates were women in 1970. However, we can`t verify this as the chart does not provide specific details on the gender distribution among illiterates.

Option 2 infers that the ratio of literate males to total male population remained unchanged over the years. This cannot be definitively validated without concrete figures for total male population.

Option 3 states that male literacy did not improve over time. This can`t be certainly affirmed or debunked without numerical data to track the literacy progression in males.

Option 4, the correct answer, states that the ratio of female to male literates improved significantly over the period. This can be verified from the pie charts. If the proportion of female literates increased while the male`s one decreased or remained the same, it can safely be said that the ratio of female to male literates improved.

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