Question map
Which one among the following was not correct about Permanent Settlement in India ?
Explanation
The Permanent Settlement, introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793, fundamentally altered the status of zamindars in Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha [3]. Statement 3 is incorrect because the settlement did not merely treat zamindars as revenue collectors; it explicitly converted them into hereditary landlords with full ownership rights over the land [4]. Previously, they were primarily tax collectors, but the 1793 Act granted them the power to sell, mortgage, or transfer land [1][t2]. Consequently, the actual cultivators were stripped of their traditional occupancy rights and reduced to the status of tenants-at-will, making statement 4 correct [t2][t7]. The system was indeed implemented in Bengal and Bihar (statement 2) and was a hallmark of Cornwallis's administration (statement 1) [3][t4]. The primary objective was to ensure a fixed, stable revenue for the British East India Company regardless of agricultural fluctuations [3][t5].
Sources
- [1] History , class XI (Tamilnadu state board 2024 ed.) > Chapter 17: Effects of British Rule > 17.2 Land Tenures: Permanent Settlement and Ryotwari Settlement > p. 266
- [2] Modern India ,Bipin Chandra, History class XII (NCERT 1982 ed.)[Old NCERT] > Chapter 5: The Structure of the Government and the Economic Policies of the British Empire in India, 1757—1857 > Land Revenue Policy > p. 102
- [3] Indian Economy, Vivek Singh (7th ed. 2023-24) > Chapter 5: Land Reforms > Lord Cornwallis, Governor General of Bengal (1786 – 1793) and the Permanent Settlement of Revenue Administration: > p. 190
- [4] Geography of India ,Majid Husain, (McGrawHill 9th ed.) > Chapter 9: Agriculture > 1. Abolition of Intermediaries > p. 25