UPSC Prelims 2026 IAS — Question Repetition Analysis
- HIGH × 1.8 marks (near-certain — same concept tested)
- MEDIUM × 1.4 marks (narrow to 2 options)
- LOW × 0.7 marks (eliminate 1 wrong option)
- NEW × 0.3 marks (random with negative-marking risk)
100 of 100 questions on the official paper had matches in ExamRobot's corpus (100%).
Dolphin Connection 🐬
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following assertion: In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa. Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion? 1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda 2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote 3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Combination of ecological evidence for river capture and Pleistocene geological timelines sourced from Environment and History.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Great Northern Plains are formed by basins of three distinct river systems — the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. 2. They are one of the most densely populated areas on Earth. 3. Between the Yamuna at Delhi and the Bay of Bengal, nearly 1600 km away, there is a drop of only 200 metres in elevation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: You would have understood the contiguous nature of the Indus-Ganga-Brahmaputra basins, providing the geographical context for Statement 3.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) :Assertion (A) : Teesta river was earlier a tributary of Ganga now it is a tributary of Brahmaputra.Reason (R) : River capturing is a major feature of Himalayan rivers.Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Codes :
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed that Himalayan rivers frequently shift basins, making the 'Ganga to Indus' assertion in the premise plausible.
With reference to the Paleolithic Age in the Indian subcontinent, consider the following statements: 1. The Paleolithic culture emerged during the Pleistocene period, which was characterized by significant glaciation in the Northern Hemisphere. 2. Paleolithic settlements are extensively found across the alluvial plains of the Indus and Ganga rivers due to the availability of water. 3. Based on the nature of stone tools and climatic changes, the Indian Paleolithic is divided into three distinct chronological phases.
Why this matches: You would have correctly associated the Pleistocene period with significant glaciation and geological shifts, validating the timeframe mentioned in the assertion.
Consider the following statements regarding the Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica): 1. It is classified as one of the four obligate freshwater dolphin species globally and is functionally blind. 2. The species is endemic only to the main stem of the Ganges River and is absent from its tributaries in Nepal and Bangladesh. 3. It acts as a reliable indicator species for the health of the entire freshwater ecosystem it inhabits. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized the freshwater dolphin's unique biology, confirming it as the only viable biological link for Statement 3.
Enlightenment Reserved 🪑
HIGH OVERLAPWhat does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with NDA PYQs and our Test Series covering aniconic symbols in early Buddhist art.
Early Buddhist sculptors did not show Buddha in human form. Through which of the following symbols was Buddha’s presence shown by the early sculptors?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized the 'Empty Seat' as a legitimate symbol of Buddha’s presence, narrowing your focus to iconic representations.
Which one of the following sculptures found at Sanchi Stupa is NOT directly inspired by Buddhist ideas ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the 'Empty Seat' as a core Buddhist sculpture, helping you avoid irrelevant secular options.
In early Buddhist art, the presence of the Buddha was often indicated through symbols rather than human forms. Consider the following pairs of symbols and their meanings: 1. Empty Seat: The Buddha's meditation under the Bodhi tree 2. Wheel: The first sermon delivered at Sarnath 3. Stupa: The event of Mahaparinibbana How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Why this matches: You would have directly locked in 'meditation under the Bodhi tree' as the meaning for an empty seat, mirroring Option A.
Vedic Flow State 🌊
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched? 1. Vitasta : Chenab 2. Asikni : Jhelum 3. Parushni : Ravi 4. Yavyavati : Beas Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with CAPF 2022 Q58 regarding ancient Rigvedic river nomenclature.
Match List-I with List-lI and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II (Vedic name of river) (Modern name) A. Drishadvati 1. Chenab B. Askini 2. Chautang C. Vitasta 3. Ravi D. Purushni 4. Jhelum
Why this matches: You would have instantly mapped Parushni to Ravi and spotted the Vitasta-Asikni swap, locking in '3 only' as the correct choice.
No close TS match.
Amaravati's Grand Export 🏗️
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct? 1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley. 2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size. 3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with PYQ geography of stupas and our specific TS-1 drill on Mahachaitya status and terminology.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly eliminated the Godavari river option, steering you toward the Krishna valley location in statement 1.
Consider the following statements about Kanaganahalli archaeological site: 1. It is situated on the bank of Bhima river. 2. The remains of the Kanaganahalli Stupa can be dated between 1st and 3rd centuries CE. 3. Emperor Ashoka's image was found at the site. Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements : 1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. 2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics. 3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced the commemorative and votive nature of stupas, providing the conceptual foundation for statement 3.
With reference to the Amaravati Stupa, one of the most significant Buddhist monuments in ancient India, which of the following statements is correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the 'Mahachaitya' status, signaling its massive scale and importance to help verify statement 2 and 3.
With reference to the architectural and religious significance of Stupas in ancient India, consider the following statements: 1. Stupas were exclusively constructed as funerary mounds to house the physical remains (relics) of the Buddha only. 2. The sculptural narratives on the gateways of the Great Stupa at Sanchi depict key events from the life of the Buddha. 3. The Great Stupa at Sanchi was designed as a standalone monument, isolated from other monastic structures or smaller stupas. Which of the above is/are correct?
With reference to the architectural and historical evolution of Stupas in ancient India, consider the following statements: 1. While the practice of raising mounds over the deceased existed since Vedic times, the Buddhist Stupa evolved specifically from simple earthen burial mounds. 2. The early Stupas at Sanchi and Bharhut were characterized by elaborate stone hemispherical structures featuring plain, unadorned gateways at the cardinal points. 3. The introduction of ornamental 'Toranas' (gateways) to the Stupa architecture is historically attributed to the patronage of the Shunga dynasty.
Why this matches: You would have tracked the evolution from Sanchi to later sites, helping you contrast their sizes and architectural influence.
The Muvendar Crowned 👑
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched? Senguttuvan : Chera Udiyanjeral : Chola Nedunjeliyan : Pandya Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with recurring 'King-Dynasty' pairing patterns found in PYQs and specific Sangam ruler details in test series.
Consider the following pairs : King Dynasty 1. Lakshmikarna : Pala 2. Bhima I : Chalukyas of Gujarat 3. Jayapala : Shahiya dynasty 4. Lalitaditya Muktapida : Utpala dynasty of Kashmir How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have trained you to spot incorrect King-Dynasty pairings, a recurring UPSC pattern for early historical periods.
Consider the following pairs : King Dynasty 1. Nannuka - Chandela 2. Jayashakti - Paramara 3. Nagabhata II - Gurjara-Pratihara 4. Bhoja - Rashtrakuta How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?
Why this matches: You would have mastered the elimination technique for 'How many' and 'Correct Pair' formats common in ancient history modules.
Consider the following pairs: 1. Gajapati - Name of a powerful Dynasty in Orissa 2. Ashvapati - Deccan Sultans 3. Narapati - Rayas of Vijayanagara Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with the titles and regional dynasties of South India, narrowing down the Tamilakam context.
Consider the following pairs of Classical Tamil literary works and their respective authors: 1. Silappadikaram : Ilango Adigal 2. Manimekalai : Sattanar 3. Tolkappiyam : Tolkappiyar How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Why this matches: You would have directly recognized Senguttuvan as the Chera hero of Silappadikaram, confirming Pair 1 is correct through literary association.
With reference to the Sangam period ruler Nedunjeliyan II of the Pandya dynasty, consider the following statements: 1. He achieved a decisive victory at the Battle of Talaiyalanganam against a coalition of the Cheras, Cholas, and five other minor chieftains. 2. His reign is noted for significant contributions to Tamil literature and the early development of temple architecture. 3. He is primarily categorized as a ruler of the early medieval period who consolidated Pandya power against the Kalabhras.
Why this matches: You would have locked in Nedunjeliyan as a Pandya king, helping you eliminate options and focus on Udiyanjeral’s incorrect Chola tag.
Forward Bloc Fast Break 🏀
MEDIUMWhich of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939? 1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi. 2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose. 3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours. 4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Core chronology and factional friction overlap from previous years' focus on Bose's 1939 split with Gandhi.
Which party was founded by Subhash Chandra Bose in the year 1939 after he broke away from the Congress?
Why this matches: You would have instantly confirmed the 1939 timeline and the split from Congress, anchoring your analysis of the four statements.
Who among the following is the author of the book 'The Indian Struggle 1920–1942'?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your familiarity with Bose’s perspective during the 1920-1942 struggle, aiding contextual reasoning for Statement 4.
The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because
Why this matches: You would have ruled out the 1939 provincial resignations as the primary cause, narrowing your focus to the internal leadership rift.
Consider the following statements regarding the relationship and roles of prominent leaders in the Indian freedom struggle: 1. Mahatma Gandhi referred to Subhash Chandra Bose as the 'Prince among the Patriots' in recognition of his selfless service to the nation. 2. Subhash Chandra Bose was known for his militant approach and often reacted strongly to European insults during his early life and political career. 3. Despite their deep mutual respect, Gandhi and Bose shared similar ideologies regarding the path to achieving Indian independence. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have recognized the strained Gandhi-Bose relationship, making Statement 1 an easy 'correct' to lock in immediately.
With reference to the Haripura Session of the Indian National Congress in 1938, consider the following statements: 1. Subhas Chandra Bose presided over the session and advocated for a radical approach toward British colonial rule. 2. The session is notable for the establishment of the National Planning Committee under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru. 3. The session marked a shift toward a more conciliatory and passive stance against the British government compared to previous years. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have established Bose’s radicalism versus the leadership, helping you evaluate the 'disunited Left' mentioned in Statement 2.
With reference to the political career of Mahatma Gandhi and his relationship with the Indian National Congress (INC), consider the following statements: 1. Mahatma Gandhi resigned from the primary membership of the Indian National Congress in October 1934. 2. His resignation was a direct consequence of the Congress's failure to resolve the communal deadlock with the Muslim League. 3. A major factor behind his resignation was the growing divergence with Congress leaders who favored participation in parliamentary politics and council entry. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have understood Gandhi's history of strategic resignations, providing the backdrop to his refusal to cooperate with Bose.
Taluqdari Takedown 📉
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856: 1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts. 2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders. 3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with our Test Series question on the Summary Settlement assumptions and the removal of intermediaries.
Statement I : The annexation of Awadh by Lord Dalhousie in 1856 adversely affected the financial conditions of the sepoys. Statement I : The sepoys had to pay higher taxes on the land where their family members stayed in Awadh..
Why this matches: Practicing this would have established the financial disruption caused by annexation, helping you contextualize why the British aggressively restructured land revenue.
Assertion (A) : First, war of independence broke out in India in 1857 soon after the departure of Lord Dalhousie from India. Reason (R) : Lord Dalhousie’s annexationist policy had caused great discontent.
Why this matches: You would have recognized the broader discontent following Dalhousie's policies, providing the historical backdrop for the aggressive 1856 land settlements.
With reference to the Summary Settlement of 1856 introduced in the Awadh region, consider the following statements: 1. It was based on the assumption that Taluqdars were the rightful hereditary owners of the land and should be maintained as intermediaries. 2. The British aimed to remove intermediaries and settle land revenue directly with the actual cultivators to reduce peasant exploitation. 3. The implementation of this settlement led to a drastic reduction in the number of villages held by Taluqdars, falling from approximately 67% to 38%.
Why this matches: You would have instantly nailed the 'outsider' status of Taluqdars and the British aim for direct peasant settlements, locking in A.
Sowing the 1919 Seeds 🌱
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following assertion: The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919. Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion? 1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates. 2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger. 3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Core focus on 1919 Act's communal extension and political mobilization of depressed classes seen in previous CDS and NDA papers.
Which one of the following statements about the Government of India Act 1919 is not correct? A) It extended the practice of communal representation B) It made the Central Executive responsible to the Legislature C) It is also known as the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms D) It paved the way for federalism by clearly separating the responsibilities of the Centre and the Provinces
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you instantly confirm Statement 1 by verifying that the 1919 Act extended communal representation.
Which one of the following statements about the Justice Party is not correct?
Why this matches: You would have nailed Statement 3 by recognizing how the Justice Party utilized the 1919 Act's reserved seats for mobilization.
The provision for separate electorate for Muslims was given in
Why this matches: Practicing this would have allowed you to distinguish between the origin and the 1919 extension of separate electorates for Muslims.
Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms): 1. It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects. 2. It established a unitary system of governance by concentrating all executive and legislative powers solely in the central government. 3. It provided for the appointment of a statutory commission to inquire into and report on its working after ten years of its coming into force. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your knowledge of the Montagu-Chelmsford framework, helping you validate the overall reform context.
With reference to the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montague-Chelmsford Reforms), consider the following statements: 1. The Act was designed with the objective of gradually introducing a responsible government in India. 2. It introduced a bicameral legislature at the provincial level for the first time. 3. The Act expanded the provincial legislative councils and ensured they had a majority of elected members. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have narrowed down the constitutional impact of the 1919 Act, making it easier to accept Statement 1.
Which of the following statements regarding the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) is INCORRECT?
A Maestro's Note 🎼
MEDIUMPandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:
Pattern Follows the UPSC trend of testing prominent Hindustani vocalists from the Dharwad/Karnataka region and their respective Gharanas.
Consider the following passage and identify the person : Born in April 1932, she was a renowned Hindustani classical vocalist. She was recognized as an innovative exponent of the Jaipur Gharana. She was awarded Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan. She was also a Fellow of Sangeet Natak Akademy. She died in April 2017
Why this matches: You would have practiced the characteristics of the Jaipur Gharana, helping you link Mallikarjun Mansur's specific style to option D.
Who among the following is a Hindustani classical singer?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with iconic Hindustani singers from Karnataka, narrowing your focus to the correct regional musical tradition.
Pandit Bhimsen Gururaj Joshi is
Regarding the evolution and patronage of Indian classical music during the medieval period, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
With reference to the evolution of Indian classical music and its foundational texts, consider the following statements: 1. The Sangita Ratnakara, authored by Śārṅgadeva, serves as a common foundational authority for both the Hindustani and Carnatic music traditions. 2. In the Late Vedic period, cultural focus shifted primarily toward visual arts, with texts like the Sama Veda being composed exclusively in poetic verses rather than musical notes. 3. Kautilya's Arthasastra provides evidence of the cultural landscape of its time by mentioning performing arts including music, dance, and theatre. Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the evolution of Indian Classical Music during the medieval period, which one of the following statements is correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your understanding of Hindustani vocal styles, providing the necessary context to tackle gharana-based classification questions.
Queens of the Soil 🌾
LOWIn which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate?
Pattern Tested the specific Vedic etymology of land classification terms, building on broad agrarian terminology found in our test series.
No close PYQ match in our corpus.
With reference to the agrarian and economic system during the Gupta period, consider the following statements: 1. Cultivable land was specifically categorized as Kshetra, while uncultivated or waste land was referred to as Khila or Aprahata. 2. The expansion of agriculture was facilitated by the active involvement of religious institutions, including Buddhist and Brahminical groups, in reclaiming uncultivated lands through endowments. 3. Agricultural productivity suffered a significant decline during this era due to a lack of sophisticated irrigation systems and state neglect.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with 'Kshetra' as the primary agrarian term, helping you narrow down its earliest scriptural origins.
Raga-Rocked It! 🎤
LOWWhich one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?
Pattern Thematic overlap with classical music systems, technical terminology, and historical categorization of Indian music traditions.
With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements : 1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna. 2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas. 3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries. 4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have deepened your familiarity with Carnatic terminology like Kritis and Ragas, helping you confidently navigate Option D's nomenclature.
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.List - I (Text)A. RagamalaB. Rasa KaumudiC. Raga VibodhD. Chaturdandi PrakashikaList - II (Author)1. Somanath2. Venkatraman3. Pundrik Vitthal4. Sri KanthaCodes :A B C D
Why this matches: You would have mastered the habit of matching musical treatises to systems, making the Hindustani-Carnatic correspondence in the source question feel intuitive.
Consider the following statements regarding the evolution and patronage of Indian classical music: 1. While Hindustani music integrated Persian and Arabic elements, Carnatic music evolved independently, maintaining a more indigenous character. 2. The reign of Emperor Aurangzeb, despite his personal orthodox views, witnessed the production of a significant number of Persian texts on Indian classical music. 3. The Dhrupad style is the primary vocal form in Carnatic music, while the Kriti is the mainstay of the Hindustani tradition. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have solidified your understanding of the divergence between Hindustani and Carnatic systems, a prerequisite for identifying their equivalent ragas.
In the context of the rich tradition of Indian Classical Music, which of the following musical forms are traditionally associated with the Carnatic (South Indian) system?
Why this matches: You would have recognized the distinctive vocabulary of the Carnatic system, assisting you in identifying Dheera Shankarabharanam as the South Indian counterpart.
Sterling Silver Lining 💷
MEDIUMThe artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with the Hilton-Young Commission's origins and the fiscal mechanics of fixed exchange rates.
Exchange rates state the value of one currency in terms of other currencies. Which one of the following statements with respect to the exchange rate of currency is correct ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you understand that fixed rates result from government actions, narrowing your focus to state fiscal motives.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. 2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. 3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have connected rupee appreciation to trade competitiveness, helping you evaluate the impact of the 1s 6d rate on exports.
Under flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined
Why this matches: You would have ruled out market mechanisms, recognizing that the Hilton-Young rate was a deliberate administrative intervention for colonial fiscal needs.
Consider the following statements regarding the institutional framework and objectives of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI): 1. The establishment of the RBI was based on the recommendations of the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, also known as the Hilton Young Commission. 2. The Central Board of Directors, which oversees the general superintendence of the bank, can consist of a maximum of 21 members appointed by the Government of India. 3. The RBI is mandated to maintain price stability as its sole objective, without legal consideration for the objective of economic growth. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized the Hilton-Young Commission as the architect of India's currency framework, locking in the colonial policy context.
Prior to the launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement, Mahatma Gandhi presented a list of eleven demands to Lord Irwin. In this context, consider the following statements regarding those demands: 1. The demands included a significant reduction in military expenditure and the abolition of the salt tax. 2. Gandhi sought a lower exchange rate between the rupee and sterling to protect Indian industrial interests. 3. A specific deadline was set for the government to accept these demands by March 11, 1930. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have highlighted nationalist opposition to British fiscal policy, steering you toward the remittance burden mentioned in Option A.
Minting Success 🪙
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following statements: I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, hamsa, and kakanika. II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver. The above statements have been associated with which of the following? 1. Emergence of urban life 2. Transition to money economy Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Overlap with PYQ and test series regarding the 6th-century BCE punch-marked silver coins and their economic impact.
Which one of the following statements with reference to the ancient Indian coins is not correct? (a) The Indo-Greeks issued the first coins bearing the name and images of rulers. (b) The Kushanas issued the first gold coins. (c) The Kushana gold coins were different in weight from the coins issued by contemporary Roman emperors. (d) These Kushana gold coins have been found from several sites in north India and central Asia.
Why this matches: You would have built foundational knowledge about early coinage evolution, allowing you to quickly validate the historical timeline in Statement I.
Statement I : The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the Kushanas. Statement I : The first gold coins were issued by the Kushanas.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you distinguish between earlier punch-marked silver coins and later gold issues by rulers like the Kushanas.
Statement I : James Prinsep, an officer in the mint of the East India Company, deciphered Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts which were used in the earliest inscriptions and coins Statement I : James Prinsep found that most of the scripts mentioned a king referred to as Piyadassi—meaning ‘pleasant to behold’
With reference to the history of coinage in ancient India, consider the following statements: 1. The earliest coins, known as punch-marked coins, were primarily made of gold and were introduced around the sixth century CE. 2. The Indo-Greeks were the first rulers in India to issue coins that featured the names and portraits of the kings. 3. The Kushanas were the first to issue gold coins in India, starting around the first century AD.
Why this matches: You would have instantly verified that punch-marked coins appeared around the sixth century, helping you confirm the accuracy of Statement II.
Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of coinage in ancient India: 1. Punch-marked coins, primarily made of silver and copper, represent the earliest metallic currency in India, appearing around the sixth century BCE. 2. The Indo-Greeks introduced the practice of minting coins that carried the portraits and names of kings, a significant shift from earlier anonymous coinage. 3. While the Kushanas were prolific in issuing gold and copper coins, the subsequent Gupta rulers restricted their coinage exclusively to religious symbols on both sides. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have nailed the fact that silver punch-marked coins represent the earliest currency, directly supporting the corroboration in Statement II.
Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of the coinage system in India: 1. The earliest minted coins in India were punch-marked coins made of silver and copper, appearing around the sixth century BCE. 2. Iltutmish, the Sultan of Delhi, is credited with the introduction of the copper jital as a standard currency. 3. The Mughal Emperor Akbar was responsible for the initial introduction of the silver rupee into the Indian monetary system. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have locked in the sixth century BCE origin of silver coins, providing the chronological certainty needed to choose Option C.
Sikhara Superstars 🏗️
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara? 1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami 2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole 3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh 4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct overlap with recurring PYQs identifying the Deogarh temple as the quintessential early Nagara specimen and AIhole as a hybrid site.
Consider the following statements about the Nagara style of temple architecture : 1. This style of temples are commonly found in the areas between Himalayas and Vindhyas. 2. The most striking feature of this style is its pyramidal shikhara. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have remembered the shikhara is the defining Nagara feature, helping you focus on the specific tower types in the options.
Which one of the following temple complexes of India does not represent the typical Nagara style ?
Why this matches: You would have instantly confirmed Deogarh as a Nagara temple, making options B, C, and D your only viable paths for selection.
With reference to the ancient architectural development in the hills of North Indian States, consider the following statements : 1. The temple 'Garbhagriha' and 'Shikhara' were made in a Rekha-prasada or Latina style. 2. The Pandrethan Temple in Kashmir is built on a plinth in the middle of a tank. 3. The Jageshwar Temple is located in Garhwal region. 4. The Lakshana Devi Mandir shows the influence of the post-Gupta tradition. How many statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your knowledge of the Rekha-Nagara style, allowing you to correctly identify it in the Huchimalligudi temple.
Consider the following statements regarding the Nagara style of temple architecture: 1. Unlike the Dravida style, Nagara temples generally lack elaborate boundary walls or massive gateways (Gopurams). 2. The Nagara style is strictly defined by having a single shikhara, as multiple towers are not permitted in this architectural tradition. 3. The garbhagriha (sanctum sanctorum) is always located directly beneath the tallest shikhara of the temple complex. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have solidified your understanding of Nagara versus Dravida features, helping you rule out the Dravidian Virupaksha temple (4).
With reference to the Nagara style of temple architecture prevalent in Northern India, consider the following statements: 1. The temples are typically built on upraised platforms known as jagati, elevating the structure from the ground. 2. A distinctive feature is the presence of elaborate water tanks within the temple enclosure for ritual purification. 3. The sanctum sanctorum is crowned by a curvilinear or pyramidal tower known as the shikhara. Which of the above is/are correct?
With reference to the evolution of temple sculpture and iconography in ancient India, consider the following statements: 1. The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh, an early Panchayatana-style structure, features a panel of Lord Vishnu reclining on the serpent Shesha. 2. In the Sheshashayana iconography at Deogarh, Lord Brahma is depicted emerging from a lotus that springs from Vishnu's navel. 3. The largest cave temple at Badami, attributed to the Chalukya ruler Mangalesa, is dedicated to Lord Shiva and features a reclining figure on a lion.
Why this matches: You would have locked in the Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh (3) as a core example, narrowing your choice down to B or D.
Gati Set Match 🧘
MEDIUMAmong the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?
Pattern Core Jaina cosmology concerning life forms and the cycle of rebirth, mirroring previous UPSC focuses on soul-animation and liberation.
Which of the following statements about Jainism is/are correct?The most important idea in Jainism is that the entire world is animated; even stones, rocks and water have life.Asceticism and penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of Karma.Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced that Jainism views the entire world as animated, setting the stage for identifying specific life forms.
"Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects." The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?
Why this matches: You would have recognized the Jaina belief in life within plants and animals, helping you confirm Tiryanch (D) as a valid form.
With reference to the religious practices and philosophy of Jainism, consider the following statements: 1. Sallekhana is a highly regarded spiritual practice involving the voluntary fasting to death to purge old karma. 2. Jainism posits that the universe is a single eternal entity, emphasizing a monistic view of existence. 3. Mahavira is referred to as 'Jina' because he is regarded as the conqueror of his own soul and inner passions.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with the purging of karma, providing the conceptual background for the four states of existence.
With reference to the fundamental tenets of Jaina philosophy, consider the following statements: 1. The universe is characterized by a fundamental dualism between the conscious soul (jiva) and the unconscious non-soul (ajiva). 2. Liberation from the cycle of birth and rebirth is primarily achieved through a balance between extreme penance and moderate worldly self-indulgence. 3. The accumulation of karma is the primary force that binds the soul to the cycle of transmigration.
Why this matches: You would have mastered the Jiva-Ajiva dualism, allowing you to better distinguish between primary soul categories and subordinate deity classes.
With reference to the philosophical foundations of Jainism, which of the following statements accurately reflects its core doctrine regarding the nature of the cosmos and existence?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have solidified your understanding of the eternal universe governed by law, contextualizing the Gati system of rebirth.
Bagh's Joyous Jig 🩰
HIGH OVERLAPThe Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:
Pattern Verbatim repeat of the Hallisalasya concept found in CISF 2024 and thematic overlap with TS-1's dancing panel.
What is Hallisalasya as depicted in Bagh cave paintings?
Why this matches: You would have directly recognized Hallisalasya as a folk dance, allowing you to confidently lock in option [A].
There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta Caves. Where is the other surviving example of Gupta paintings?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed Bagh as the primary Gupta-era site, helping you narrow your focus to its specific murals.
Consider the following statements regarding ancient Indian cave paintings: 1. The Bagh Caves in Madhya Pradesh are renowned for their secular themes, including a famous 'Dancing Panel'. 2. The early mural traditions of the Satavahana period are prominently found in caves nine and ten of the Ajanta complex. 3. The Ellora Caves are exclusively known for their rock-cut architecture, as no mural paintings have been preserved within the Kailash temple. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have spotted the 'Dancing Panel' and secular themes of Bagh Caves, making the joyous folk dance choice obvious.
A Zero-Sum Game 🔢
MEDIUMConsider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India :1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595 - 596).2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Pattern Overlap with historical epigraphy and Indian cultural transmission to South-East Asia (IAS 2003 Q30).
Consider the following statements about science in medieval South India: 1. The Katapayadi system of numerals, which was invented by Vararuchi of Kerala, the author of Chandra Vakyas, was used for calculating the position of Moon on any day of the year. 2. Achyuta Pisharati (1550 – 1621) wrote Uparagakriyakrama, a text on eclipses. 3. Ravi Varma of Mahodayapuram set up an observatory and is also said to have inaugurated the Kollam era. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you recognize specialized Indian numerical systems like Katapayadi, making the Mankani plates' place-value claim more plausible.
Consider the following statements about the historical evidence of inscriptions in India :1. The oldest deciphered inscriptions are in Brahmi and Kharoshthi.2. The earliest inscriptions in the Tamil language are copper plate grants.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with the timeline of copper plate grants, aiding your assessment of the Mankani plates' authenticity.
Consider the following statements about ancient Indian inscriptions : 1. The earliest inscriptions are in Sanskrit. 2. Kharosthi script, used in inscriptions in the north-west, was deciphered with the help of coins of Indo-Greek kings who ruled over the area. 3. Most of the inscriptions mention grand, unique events, and routine agricultural practices do not find mention. How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have known that Sanskrit was not the earliest script language, allowing you to focus strictly on the mathematical content.
With reference to the Junagadh rock inscription of Rudradaman I, consider the following statements: 1. It is one of the earliest long inscriptions written entirely in Sanskrit, rather than Prakrit or Pali. 2. It records that Pushyagupta, a provincial governor under Emperor Ashoka, was responsible for the original construction of the Sudarshana lake. 3. The inscription mentions that Rudradaman I defeated the 'Lord of Dakshinapatha', identified as a Satavahana ruler.
Why this matches: You would have mastered the transition from Prakrit to Sanskrit in early inscriptions, helping you evaluate the seventh-century timeline in Statement 3.
With reference to the evolution of scripts in ancient India, consider the following statements: 1. The Kharoshthi script, primarily used in the North-Western part of the Indian subcontinent, was written from right to left. 2. James Prinsep, an officer of the East India Company, was responsible for deciphering both the Brahmi and Kharoshthi scripts in the 1830s. 3. Brahmi script served as the primary medium for inscriptions only until the Mauryan period, after which it was completely replaced by Sanskrit-based scripts. Which of the above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the linguistic and literary landscape of ancient and medieval India: 1. Apabhramsa served as a vernacular bridge between classical Sanskrit and the emergence of modern regional languages. 2. During the Gupta period, Sanskrit was established as the official language, deeply influencing the courtly literature and culture of the era. 3. Inscriptions from the Chalukya dynasty indicate that Kannada was recognized as a local Prakrit, reflecting the early administrative use of regional languages.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the Gupta-era Sanskrit dominance, providing the linguistic context for early medieval inscriptions and numerical evolution.
Harappan Spin Doctor 🧵
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns : I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels. II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered. III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ? 1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home. 2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed. 3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system. Select the answer using the code given below :
Pattern Overlap with PYQs regarding Indus Valley technology including spindle whorls, weight standardization, and domestic architectural features.
Consider the following statements about Harappan cities : 1. Roads were not always absolutely straight and did not always cross one another at right angles. 2. A striking feature is the uniformity in the average size of the bricks for houses and for city walls. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the high level of standardization in Harappan construction, supporting the scientific precision mentioned in Statement II.
Which of the following statements about Harappa Civilization is/are correct? 1, There is the extraordinary uniformity in artefacts as evident in pottery, seals, bricks and weights. 2, The late Harappa sites also maintained the same construction techniques as were used in mature Harappa sites. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: You would have locked in the fact that Harappans used uniform weights, directly validating the scientific knowledge inferred in Inference 2.
With reference to the ancient people of Harappan culture of Indus Valley, which one of the following statements is not correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized spindle whorls as a domestic Harappan staple, verifying Statement I and supporting the correct Inference 1.
Consider the following statements regarding the architectural and archaeological features of various Harappan sites: 1. Kalibangan is distinguished by the use of decorative bricks for flooring, a feature not commonly found in other Harappan cities. 2. The site of Surkotada is unique in the Harappan context for providing evidence of horse remains. 3. Ropar is characterized by the presence of a double citadel system, unlike the standard single citadel layout of Mohenjo-Daro. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with site-specific architectural features, making the description of baked bricks and private courtyards believable.
With reference to the agricultural practices of the Harappan Civilization, consider the following statements: 1. Archaeological evidence from Kalibangan indicates the use of ploughed fields, featuring two sets of furrows at right angles. 2. The Harappans practiced a sophisticated cropping system, including the cultivation of multiple crops like wheat, barley, and lentils. 3. Terracotta models of ploughs have been recovered exclusively from the site of Cholistan.
With reference to the Harappan Civilization site of Chanhudaro, consider the following statements: 1. It is a unique Harappan site characterized by the absence of a fortified citadel. 2. The site provides archaeological evidence of a continuous sequence from the Pre-Harappan to the Mature Harappan phases. 3. It was a specialized industrial hub primarily known for its sophisticated bead-making and seal-cutting craftsmanship. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Peasant Power Play 🌾
HIGH OVERLAPWhich one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct ?
Pattern TS-2 and TS-4 perfectly dissect the economic triggers and geography of both movements, isolating the correct cause-effect pair.
Consider the following movements : 1. Moplah Rebellion 2. Bardoli Satyagraha 3. Champaran Satyagraha 4. Salt Satyagraha Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above in ascending order ?
Why this matches: You would have cemented the 1928 timeline for Bardoli, helping you distinguish it chronologically from the earlier Eka Movement.
Consider the following social movements : 1. Chipko Movement 2. Bardoli Satyagraha 3. Satyashodhak Samaj Which one of the following is the correct chronological order (starting with the earliest) of the launch of the above social movements ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced Bardoli's historical context, providing a baseline to evaluate its specific socio-economic claims.
What is the correct sequence of the following events ? 1. Bardoli Satyagraha 2. Rajkot Satyagraha 3. Champaran Satyagrah 4. Nagpur Satyagraha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: You would have recognized Bardoli as a late-1920s event, aiding in the elimination of geographically or temporally mismatched options.
With reference to the Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, consider the following statements: 1. The movement was characterized by the establishment of 'Chhavanis' or workers' camps to organize the peasant resistance. 2. Women played a negligible role in the movement, as it was primarily a male-dominated agrarian protest. 3. The primary cause of the Satyagraha was the refusal of peasants to pay a revised and increased land revenue assessment. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed Bardoli as a peasant resistance, helping you rule out the landless laborer claim in Option B.
With reference to the Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, consider the following statements: 1. The movement was triggered by the Bombay Presidency Government's decision to increase land revenue by 22 percent. 2. To support the cause of the peasants, K.M. Munshi and Lalji Naranji resigned from the Bombay Legislative Council. 3. The movement was characterized by the social acceptance and inclusion of those who refused to join the boycott against the government. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have nailed Option C by directly identifying the 22 percent land revenue hike as the trigger for Bardoli Satyagraha.
Which of the following statements regarding the Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928 is INCORRECT?
Why this matches: You would have spotted the land revenue focus of Bardoli, instantly narrowing your choice to the correct economic grievance in Option C.
Rigvedic Well-Oiled Machine ⚙️
MEDIUMConsider the following statements about the Rigvedic period :I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.Which of the following information support/supports the above statements ?1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra / sreni (sickle).3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.Select the answer using the code given below :
Pattern Deep conceptual overlap with ExamRobot tests on Early Vedic economy, pastoral-agricultural shifts, and technological precedents.
Consider the following statements : 1. Terracotta models of the plough have been found at sites in Cholistan and at Banawali (Haryana). 2. There is evidence of a ploughed field at Kalibangan associated with the mature phase of the Harappan civilization. 3. The ploughed field at Kalibangan had two sets of furrows crossing at right angles to each other suggesting two different crops were grown together in it. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you confirm Haryana's deep history of agriculture and ploughing, making statement I much more plausible.
Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements. 1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element though present, did not dominate the scene. 2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Why this matches: You would have at least recognized the continuity of ancient technological practices like textiles and irrigation across early Indian civilizations.
With reference to the Early Vedic (Rig Vedic) period, consider the following statements: 1. The economy was primarily pastoral, and agriculture was not the main economic activity. 2. The political structure was characterized by a highly centralized monarchy with absolute power. 3. The Rig Vedic Samhita, the earliest text of this period, is generally dated between 1500 BCE and 1000 BCE. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: You would have nailed the agricultural transition from pastoralism, helping you validate the expansion mentioned in statements I and II.
With reference to the socio-political and economic life during the Rig Vedic period, consider the following statements: 1. The term 'gavishthi' was used to denote warfare, reflecting the central importance of cattle in the tribal economy. 2. The 'vidatha' served as a tribal assembly that performed various secular, religious, and military functions. 3. The Rig Veda describes social units like the jana and vis as being peripheral and not integral to the political organization of the time. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have locked in the central role of cattle, making the use of draught-animals in statement 3 obvious.
With reference to the economic structure of the Rig Vedic period, consider the following statements: 1. The economic life was predominantly centered around pastoralism, with cattle serving as a primary measure of wealth. 2. Land was considered the private property of the Rajan, who could grant it to individuals as permanent hereditary holdings. 3. The system of redistribution was facilitated through the exchange of gifts such as chariots, gold, and livestock.
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized the pastoral-economic structure, providing the necessary context to evaluate Rigvedic agricultural evidence and tools.
Ecuador’s Throat of Fire 🔥
MEDIUMTungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?
Pattern Combines geographical location of Andean volcanoes with deep conceptual testing of UNESCO Global Geopark designation requirements.
In which one of the following countries is the volcano ‘Guallatiri’ located ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with the Andes-heavy distribution of active volcanoes, narrowing your focus to South American geography.
Which of the following statements regarding the UNESCO Global Geoparks (UGGp) is NOT correct?
Why this matches: You would have mastered the UGGp criteria, helping you confirm that Tungurahua's 'international geological significance' aligns with UNESCO's holistic management.
Which of the following statements regarding UNESCO Global Geoparks (UGGp) is NOT correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have locked in the administrative nature of Geoparks, making the 2025 designation of Tungurahua a predictable development.
With reference to the UNESCO Global Geoparks (UGGp) network, which of the following statements is correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized that Global Geoparks require sites of international significance, focusing your search on prominent Andean stratovolcanoes.
Madhya Pradesh Roars! 🐅
HIGH OVERLAPWith reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025. 2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park. 3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with our test series on Madhav National Park's geography and Sakhya Sagar's Ramsar status.
With regard to ‘Project Tiger’, which one of the following statements is not correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced the concept of Tiger Reserves, providing the foundational context needed to evaluate statement 1.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given tiger reserves of India from north to south ?
Why this matches: You would have practiced the spatial distribution of Tiger Reserves in Madhya Pradesh, helping you contextualize the park's geographic location.
With reference to Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary, Sultanpur National Park, Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary and Wadhwana Wetland, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. All of them are Ramsar sites. 2. All of them are naturally formed wetlands. 3. All of them are birding sites. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: Practicing this would have sharpened your ability to verify Ramsar site status, aiding your confirmation of Sakhya Sagar in statement 2.
With reference to the protected areas of Madhya Pradesh, which of the following statements is factually correct regarding Madhav National Park?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized Sakhya Sagar as part of the park, locking in statement 2 and verifying its MP location.
With reference to the conservation of Tigers in India, which of the following statements is factually correct regarding the current status and distribution of Tiger Reserves?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have updated your knowledge on new Tiger Reserves, making the 2025 declaration in statement 1 much easier to accept.
Archipelago Rainfall Ace 🌦️
HIGH OVERLAPWith reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate. 2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon. 3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct overlap with NDA 2024 regarding the islands' humid climate and incorrect precipitation timeline.
Which statement is NOT correct with reference to Andaman and Nicobar Islands ?
Why this matches: You would have instantly spotted the 'humid, tropical coastal climate' and knocked out the incorrect March-April precipitation claim to lock in B.
Consider the following statements regarding Andaman and Nicobar Islands I. It enjoys equatorial climate II. This is the only place in India where a volcano is located III. This is the only place in Tndia where coral bed is found Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the equatorial, warm climate nature of the islands, supporting the validity of Statement 1.
Consider the following statements with reference to rainy tropical climate regions: I. These usually extend not more than five to ten degress on either side of the equator. II. These are characterised by constant high temperature and humidity with little range. III. These regions have sun overhead or nearly so throughout the year. Which of these statements are correct?
Why this matches: You would have recognized the general humidity and temperature traits of tropical regions, providing the thematic background to validate Statement 1.
With reference to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, consider the following statements: 1. The archipelago is characterized by equatorial rainforests and experiences convectional rainfall. 2. The entire island chain is primarily of coral origin, similar to the Lakshadweep archipelago. 3. The region contains areas of volcanic origin, including the only active volcano in South Asia. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your knowledge of the islands' equatorial rainfall patterns, helping you verify the climatic description in Statement 1.
Consider the following statements regarding the forest cover and vegetation types in India: 1. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are unique for possessing a combination of tropical wet-evergreen, moist deciduous, and mangrove forests. 2. Tropical semi-evergreen forests are restricted exclusively to the Western Ghats and are not found in the Eastern Himalayas or island territories. 3. Tropical wet-evergreen forests are found in both the Western Ghats and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, characterized by high species diversity and hardwood trees. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have identified the tropical wet-evergreen nature of the islands, indirectly supporting the humid tropical climate claim in the first statement.
Rock-Solid Block 🧱
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India? 1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity 2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills 3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap on Peninsular Block characteristics including residual hills, submergence, and mature valley morphology.
Which of the following statements with regard to the Indian Peninsular Plateau is/are correct ? 1. The Southern plateau block is formed mainly of granite and gneiss 2. The Deccan lava plateau is an elevated tableland consisting of horizontally } arranged lava sheets 3. The Malwa plateau dominates the Vindhyan scraps, forming the Eastern flank of the plateau 4. The trough of the Narmada and Tapti is interposed between the Vindhyan and the Satpura ranges Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: You would have gained context on the Peninsular Block's geological composition, helping you recognize its ancient and rigid nature.
In India, rigid and stable elevated lands, denuded rocks and series of scarps are the features of which of the following?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the Peninsula as a region of denuded rocks and scarps, validating the residual mountain description.
Which of the following statements about the coasts of India is/are correct? 1. The West Coast of India is a high rocky, retreating coast. 2. The West Coast of India is dominated by erosional landforms. 3. The East Coast of India, however, is a low sedimentary coast exhibiting depositional forms. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Why this matches: You would have recognized the West Coast's unique tectonic and erosional character, supporting the fact of submergence in statement 1.
Consider the following statements regarding the physiography of the Peninsular Plateau in India: 1. The plateau is primarily composed of ancient crystalline rocks, predominantly gneisses and granites. 2. The region is characterized by youthful topography featuring narrow, deep-cut V-shaped valleys and jagged peaks. 3. Geologically, the desert extensions in Rajasthan are considered a part of the Peninsular block. Which of the above statements are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you instantly eliminate V-shaped valleys (3) as youthful features, locking in the correct answer.
With reference to the geological structure of the Indian Peninsular Block, consider the following statements: 1. The block is primarily composed of ancient gneisses and granites, some dating back over 3600 million years. 2. The northeastern extension of this block is geologically separated from the Chotanagpur Plateau by the Malda fault. 3. Unlike the Himalayan region, the Peninsular Block has remained rigid and has not experienced any block faulting or vertical displacement since the Archaean period. Which of the above is/are correct?
With reference to the physiography of the Indian Peninsular Plateau, consider the following statements: 1. The Meghalaya and Karbi-Anglong Plateaus are physiographic extensions of the main Peninsular block, separated by the Malda fault. 2. The general slope of the Deccan Plateau is from east to west, as evidenced by the flow of major rivers like the Godavari and Krishna. 3. The Peninsular Plateau is a composite of several smaller plateaus, including the Hazaribagh, Ranchi, and Palamau plateaus. Which of the above is/are correct?
Sagar-Superiority ⚓
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India: I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct? 1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I. 2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework. 3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with recent 2023-2024 maritime visions and Logistics Performance Index metrics from recent defense service papers.
The projects under Coastal Berth Scheme of the flagship Sagarmala Programme are distributed over how many States?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with the specific 'Coastal Berth' infrastructure component of the flagship Sagarmala framework.
Which of the following statements is not correct? (a) SAGAR-SETU is a mobile app, which aims to improve the Ease of Doing Business. (b) Harit Sagar aims at achieving Zero Carbon Emission Goal. (c) Sagar Manthan is a mission launched by Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India, to increase fish production. (d) Costa Serena is the first international cruise liner in India.
Why this matches: You would have recognized Harit Sagar's green goals, helping you validate the innovation and sustainability focus of Statement III.
Consider the following statements : 1. India has secured 10th rank in International Shipment category in World Bank's Logistics Performance Index Report-2023 2. Global Maritime India Summit-2023 was held in Vishakhapatnam 3. 'Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047' was launched during Global Maritime India Summit-2023 How many of the above statements · is/are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have nailed Statement II and III by linking India's shipment rankings and the 'Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047'.
With reference to the Green Tug Transition Program (GTTP), consider the following statements: 1. It is a key component of the 'Panch Karma Sankalp' initiative aimed at decarbonizing maritime operations. 2. The program focuses exclusively on reducing emissions from land-based transport within port premises. 3. It aligns with India's long-term commitment to achieving Net Zero emissions by the year 2050. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have understood the decarbonization aspect of maritime operations, reinforcing the futuristic 'innovation hub' claims in Statement III.
With reference to the maritime infrastructure and port administration in India, which of the following statements is correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have clarified the governance of major ports, providing the foundational context for the infrastructure discussed in Statement I.
With reference to the maritime administration and port infrastructure in India, which of the following statements is correct?
Why this matches: You would have identified key ports and green hub initiatives, supporting the port-led growth narrative found in Statement I.
Orchid You Not 🌸
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid): 1. It is an epiphytic orchid. 2. The species is endemic to North-east India. 3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Pattern Direct conceptual overlap on the epiphytic nature of orchids and geographical elimination patterns for North-east flora.
Consider the following statements : 1. Creepers or climbers are commonly found in the tropical rain forest. 2. The epiphytes, which do not have their roots on the ground, survive on the trees in the tropical rain forest. 3. All epiphytes are not creepers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the definition of epiphytes, helping you lock in Statement 1 as fundamentally correct.
Consider the following statements : 1. Articles 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa. 2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America envisage a dual policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship. 3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have recognized Arunachal Pradesh and Assam as distinct political entities often grouped together in special constitutional provisions.
Consider the following statements: 1. In India, Red Panda is naturally found in the Western Himalayas only. 2. In India, Slow Loris lives in the dense forests of the North East. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have made you cautious of 'only' and 'endemic' labels for North-east species, helping you doubt Statement 2.
Consider the following statements regarding population interactions in an ecosystem: 1. An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango tree branch is a classic example of commensalism. 2. Barnacles attaching themselves to the back of a whale represent amensalism because the whale is hindered by their weight. 3. Lichens are a result of a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a photosynthesizing alga or cyanobacterium. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized orchids as epiphytes, securing Statement 1 and narrowing your choice to B or C.
Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of Tropical Rain Forests: 1. They are characterized by a distinct vertical stratification including a canopy of tall trees and a significant presence of epiphytic plants such as Orchids and Bromeliads. 2. The vegetation is typically sparse due to the lack of sunlight reaching the forest floor, which prevents the growth of diverse flora. 3. These ecosystems are primarily found in temperate regions where high humidity supports the growth of specialized non-parasitic plants. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have cemented the orchid-epiphyte link in your memory, ensuring you nailed the foundational fact of the question.
Ahom's Royal Resting Place 🪦
HIGH OVERLAPWhich one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?1. They acted as army fortresses.2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with 2025 CDS paper and multiple test series drills on Tai-Ahom funerary architecture and UNESCO status.
Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Moidam-The Mound-Burial system of the Ahom dynasty was inscribed in the UNESCO World Heritage list. 2. The Government of India conferred the status of classical language to Pali, Assamese, Bengali and Maithili. 3. Project PARI is an initiative of Ministry of Education. Select the answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: You would have instantly linked the Moidam burial system to the UNESCO list, confirming the Ahom dynasty context required for the answer.
Which among the following was/were declared UNESCO's World Heritage Site/Sites in 2023?1. Dholavira, Gujarat2. Hoysala Temple of Belur3. Santiniketan, West Bengal4. Ramappa TempleSelect the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have sharpened your UNESCO site awareness, though it lacks the specific burial ground details for the Moidams.
With reference to the Charaideo Moidams, consider the following statements: 1. They are unique architectural structures located in West Bengal that served as the burial grounds for the Ahom royalty. 2. The Moidams are vaulted mounds consisting of a domed chamber covered by a heap of earth, primarily used for Ahom kings. 3. As of early 2024, these structures have been officially designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have nailed statement 3 by recognizing Moidams as vaulted mounds used specifically as burial grounds for Ahom royalty.
Consider the following statements regarding the Moidams of Choraideo: 1. They are pyramidal burial mounds associated with the Ahom dynasty, which migrated to the Brahmaputra Valley from present-day Myanmar in the 13th century. 2. Geographically, these structures are situated in the foothills of the Patkai Ranges in eastern Assam. 3. The Moidams primarily served as defensive fortresses and administrative centers for the Ahom kings. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you lock in the 'pyramidal burial mounds' description, immediately ruling out fortresses or recreation centers.
Consider the following statements regarding the Charaideo Moidams of Assam: 1. They were established as the royal burial sites for the Ahom dynasty, where monarchs were interred with their possessions. 2. The architectural design of these mounds represents a unique fusion of Mughal and Tibeto-Burman structural styles. 3. The burial practices associated with these sites reflect a belief in the afterlife, drawing parallels with ancient civilizations like the Harappans. Which of the above statements are correct?
Why this matches: You would have directly recognized Moidams as royal burial sites for the Ahom dynasty, making option 3 a certain choice.
Better Late Than Four
MEDIUMAt the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and "Blue Transformation". Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct?
Pattern Focuses on Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) institutional frameworks and international conference outcomes.
The terms 'Agreement on Agriculture', 'Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures' and 'Peace Clause' appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you instantly associate FAO with international policy frameworks, narrowing your focus to agrifood-specific sustainability outcomes.
The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
Why this matches: You would have recognized the pattern of UN conference outcomes, helping you logically link the 2025 UNOC to specific institutional goals.
Consider the following statements regarding international food security reports and definitions: 1. The 'Global Report on Food Crises' (GRFC) is an annual publication released by the Food Security Information Network (FSIN). 2. The 'State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World' report is published biennially by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and the World Food Programme (WFP). 3. The Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) defines food security as a condition where all people, at all times, have physical and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with FAO's core reports, making the 'Four Betters' framework easier to spot among technical distractors.
Jade Sea's Rift Jewel 💎
LOWWhich of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct? 1. It is the largest desert lake in the world. 2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert. 3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Thematic overlap regarding Rift Valley geography and desert features, though Lake Turkana specifics were genuinely fresh.
No close PYQ match in our corpus.
Consider the following statements regarding Rift Valley Lakes: 1. Rift valley lakes are primarily formed through tectonic faulting processes that create deep depressions in the Earth's crust. 2. Lake Baikal, the world's deepest lake, is situated within a passive rift valley system. 3. Lake Tanganyika is the second largest freshwater lake by volume and is located in the Albertine Rift. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have locked in the Rift Valley context of African lakes, helping you question the Sahara-South Sudan link in Statement 2.
Consider the following statements regarding the global distribution and characteristics of major deserts: 1. The Sahara Desert is the largest desert in the world, covering an area of approximately 9 million square kilometers. 2. The Great Australian Desert is the second largest desert globally, covering nearly half of the Australian continent. 3. The Namib Desert is a prominent coastal desert located along the southwestern coast of South America.
Why this matches: You would have narrowed down Statement 2 by recognizing the Sahara's actual boundaries, making a South Sudan location for the lake unlikely.
Khasi Hills' Carbon Creed 🌿
MEDIUMWhich one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?
Pattern Deep conceptual dives into the REDD+ framework and community-led forest carbon initiatives in previous UPSC papers and test series.
With reference to 'Forest Carbon Partnership Facility', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples. 2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management. 3. It assists the countries in their 'REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)' efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with global carbon partnerships, helping you narrow down the institutional context of REDD+ projects.
Which of the following statements is/are correct? Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to 1. protection of biodiversity 2. resilience of forest ecosystems 3. poverty reduction Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: You would have recognized the 'poverty reduction' and 'resilience' goals, helping you select the community-focused Khasi Hills project over institutional ones.
With reference to the REDD+ framework under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), consider the following statements: 1. The '+' in REDD+ signifies additional forest-related activities such as the conservation of forest carbon stocks and sustainable management of forests. 2. It primarily focuses on providing financial incentives to developed countries to reduce their domestic industrial emissions. 3. Developing nations are eligible to receive results-based payments for verified emission reductions achieved by reducing deforestation and forest degradation.
Why this matches: You would have mastered the REDD+ additional forest-related activities, locking in the 'sustainable management' aspect central to the Khasi Hills certification.
The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) was launched in 2008 to outline India's strategy for meeting the challenges of climate change. Which of the following is NOT one of the core national missions identified under this plan?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you eliminate NAPCC missions, focusing your attention on standalone environmental frameworks like Plan Vivo.
The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) was launched in 2008 to outline India's strategy for meeting the challenges of climate change. Which of the following missions is explicitly included as one of the eight core missions of the NAPCC?
Why this matches: You would have easily ruled out the National Water Mission, keeping your focus strictly on forest-based carbon sequestration initiatives.
Zero to 2070 Hero ⚡
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change: I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct? Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Deep conceptual overlap with UPSC's long-term emission strategy and India's phased developmental approach to climate change.
Which of the following statements about National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) with reference to India is/are correct ? 1. It emphasises that maintaining a high growth rate is essential for raising the living standards of the vast majority of the people of India and reducing their vulnerability to the impact of climate change. 2. It was released in 2014. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you recognize that India prioritizes high growth and vulnerability reduction over short-term emission cuts alone.
Which of the following statements about 'Green Credit Initiative' is/are correct? 1. It is a response to the challenge of climate change. 2. It promotes plantations on wasteland and river catchment areas. 3. It is a scheme of the Government of India to replace the kerosene oil with solar power used by the rural poor. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: You would have at least recognized the government's response to climate change, providing the context needed to evaluate Statement II.
Consider the following statements : Statement I : At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'. Statement II : The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector. Statement III : If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have sharpened your ability to handle complex Statement-I/II relationship questions typical of recent UPSC formats.
With reference to India's Long-Term Low Greenhouse Gas Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) submitted to the UNFCCC, consider the following statements: 1. The strategy emphasizes the creation of a sustainable transportation system and the construction of energy-efficient buildings. 2. India's economic development trajectory has resulted in a minimal increase in energy consumption, suggesting that sustainable energy shifts are not an immediate priority. 3. The promotion of energy conservation and the integration of renewable energy sources are identified as essential pillars for achieving sustainable energy development.
Why this matches: You would have nailed the LT-LEDS focus on long-term transformation, exposing the contradiction in Statement III and locking in B.
With reference to global climate indices and India's climate commitments, consider the following statements: 1. In the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI), India's ranking is superior to that of both China and the United States. 2. According to the Global Climate Risk Index 2021, India's vulnerability rank worsened from 7th to 5th compared to the previous year. 3. As part of its updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), India has pledged to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 50% by 2030 from 2005 levels.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with India's performance on climate indices, helping you weigh the validity of emission reduction claims.
With reference to India's energy transition and non-fossil fuel targets, consider the following statements: 1. India has set an ambitious target to achieve 500 GW of non-fossil fuel-based energy capacity by the year 2030. 2. Among the non-fossil energy sources, Wind energy currently contributes the most to India's installed capacity, followed by Solar energy. 3. As of 2023, India's renewable energy profile includes approximately 67 GW from solar energy and 42 GW from wind energy. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have spotted India's specific energy targets, providing the empirical baseline required to evaluate the 2020 emission data in Statement II.
Ape-ing the Brachiation 🐒
HIGH OVERLAPWith respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List. 2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees. 3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap on India's only ape species, its Northeastern habitat, and IUCN status across PYQs and test series.
Consider the following statements: 1. Toothless mammals such as pangolins are not found in India. 2. Gibbon is the only ape found in India. Which of the statements given above is are correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly confirmed that Gibbons are India's only ape species, grounding your analysis of Statements 1 and 3.
Which of the following statements about biodiversity hot spots is/are correct? 1. Biodiversity hot spots are identified by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN). 2. Biodiversity hot spots are defined according to their vegetation. 3. In India, Eastern Ghats and Western Himalaya are the biodiversity hot spots. Select the correct answer using the code given below,
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your understanding of how the IUCN identifies and categorizes threatened species in biodiversity hotspots.
With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments. 2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments. 3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: You would have gained familiarity with the IUCN's role in classification, aiding your confidence in the Endangered status of Statement 1.
Consider the following statements regarding the Hollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary: 1. It is the only protected area in India that serves as a habitat for the Hoolock Gibbon, the country's only ape species. 2. The sanctuary is located in the Jorhat district of West Bengal, characterized by its semi-evergreen forest patches. 3. The sanctuary was renamed in the late 20th century to honor the Hollong tree, which is a dominant floral species in the region. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have nailed Statement 1 by identifying the Hollongapar Sanctuary as the dedicated habitat for the Hoolock Gibbon.
With reference to the Hoolock Gibbon, the only ape species found in India, consider the following statements: 1. They are primarily distributed across the tropical evergreen forests of the Western Ghats. 2. In India, the species is represented by both the Western Hoolock Gibbon and the Eastern Hoolock Gibbon. 3. They are characterized by their unique vocalizations and are strictly arboreal in nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have locked in Statement 1's Endangered status and spotted that these apes are distinct from heavy-built great apes.
Consider the following statements regarding the Nokrek Biosphere Reserve: 1. It is located in the Khasi Hills and represents the highest peak of the Meghalaya plateau. 2. The Simsang River, which is the longest river in the Garo Hills, originates within this reserve. 3. It is a significant habitat for the Hoolock Gibbon, the only ape found in India. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have narrowed down the habitat to Northeast India, providing the necessary context to validate Statement 1.
Mangrove Shield 🛡️
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience? 1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts. 2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones. 3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with PYQ 2011 and 1996 regarding 'safety hedge' and coastal protection mechanisms.
Which of the following statements are appropriate to Mangrove Sites? 1. Mangrove plants require appropriate mix of saline water and freshwater, 2. Mangrove plants require mudflats to enable it to grow and develop. 3. Mangrove plants are found in the inter-tidal zones of sheltered coasts. 4. Mangrove vegetation has been reported in all the coastal States including Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Select the correct answer using the code given below,
Why this matches: You would have recognized the inter-tidal nature of mangroves, helping you rule out their conversion into freshwater aquaculture zones in Statement 2.
Assertion (A) : Mangroves are very specialised forest ecosystems of tropical and subtropical regions bordering certain sea coasts. Reason (R) : They stabilise the shoreline and act as bulwark against encroachments by sea. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed that mangroves act as a bulwark against the sea, directly validating Statement 3 as a bio-shield.
With reference to Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Income (MISHTI), which of the following statements is/are correct ?1. It was initiated in 2019.2. It aims to restore Mangrove forests.Select the correct answer from the code given below :Code :
Why this matches: You would have connected the MISHTI scheme to mangrove restoration, reinforcing the logic of protecting them for livelihood and tangible income.
With reference to climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies, consider the following statements: 1. Restoring blue carbon ecosystems, such as tidal marshes and mangroves, is a recognized method for enhancing carbon sequestration. 2. Retrofitting existing urban infrastructure for energy efficiency is considered an adaptation measure but does not contribute to climate change mitigation. 3. Relocating vulnerable coastal communities to safer areas is a strategic approach to reduce long-term climate risk and vulnerability.
Why this matches: You would have identified mangroves as a climate change mitigation strategy, providing the necessary context to confirm Statement 3.
Consider the following statements regarding the mangrove ecosystems in India: 1. Mangroves are physiologically restricted to tropical and subtropical regions as they cannot survive in freezing temperatures. 2. The Sundarbans is globally recognized as the largest single block of freshwater mangroves, serving as a critical habitat for the Royal Bengal Tiger. 3. The Kharai camel, a unique breed found in Gujarat, is known for its ability to swim in seawater and primarily feeds on mangroves. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: You would have spotted that mangroves are not 'freshwater' ecosystems, allowing you to quickly dismiss the false premise in Statement 1.
Consider the following statements regarding the adaptive mechanisms and ecological characteristics of Mangrove ecosystems: 1. Mangroves are halophytic plants that exhibit viviparity, a reproductive strategy where seeds germinate while still attached to the parent tree. 2. To survive in anaerobic soil conditions, these plants develop specialized aerial roots known as pneumatophores for gas exchange. 3. Mangroves are primarily found in temperate regions along exposed, high-energy coastlines to ensure maximum oxygenation of the water.
Why this matches: You would have instantly eliminated Statement 2 by knowing mangroves are salt-tolerant halophytes, not 'salt-sensitive' plants.
Deep Draft, Deep Impact 🚢
MEDIUMIn what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy? 1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations. 2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala’s profile as a maritime heritage destination. 3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Strong conceptual alignment with 2024 maritime and logistics trends, specifically focusing on port capacity and transshipment hubs.
Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991 ? 1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously. 2. Share of India's exports in world trade increased. 3. FDI inflows increased. 4. India's foreign exchange reserves increased enormously. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced the trend of India's rising world trade share, making the ambitious 'repositioning' in statement 3 highly plausible.
Which one of the following statements about India is not correct?
Why this matches: You would have solidified your knowledge of India's maritime transport statistics, helping you validate the massive structural role of port infrastructure.
Consider the following statements : 1. India has secured 10th rank in International Shipment category in World Bank's Logistics Performance Index Report-2023 2. Global Maritime India Summit-2023 was held in Vishakhapatnam 3. 'Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047' was launched during Global Maritime India Summit-2023 How many of the above statements · is/are correct ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have alerted you to India's improved International Shipment ranking, logically supporting the transshipment goals described in statement 3.
Consider the following statements regarding the maritime trade and port infrastructure in India: 1. Indian ports are the backbone of the nation's international commerce, managing approximately 95 percent of the total trade volume. 2. The development and operation of ports in India are exclusively reserved for the public sector to ensure national security. 3. India possesses a network of 13 major ports and approximately 200 non-major (minor) ports that facilitate both international and coastal trade. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed that 95 percent of trade is maritime-based, highlighting why a deep-draft port is a structural shift.
Consider the following statements regarding the maritime and port infrastructure in India: 1. India currently possesses 12 major ports distributed equally between the eastern and western coasts, complemented by approximately 200 non-major ports. 2. The National Maritime Heritage Complex, a world-class facility showcasing India's rich nautical history, is being developed at the ancient site of Lothal. 3. The average turnaround time for container ships at major Indian ports has been optimized to reach a record low of 10 hours as of the FY25 performance indicators. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have noted the separate Heritage Complex project, helping you rule out the 'heritage shipping' focus mentioned in statement 2.
Consider the following statements regarding the maritime and logistics infrastructure in India: 1. Deendayal Port in Gujarat has been strategically identified to serve as a green hydrogen hub. 2. Kochi Port is an artificial harbor developed to serve the hinterland of Kerala and southern Karnataka. 3. Kolkata Port is a riverine port situated on the Hugli River, approximately 128 km inland from the Bay of Bengal. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with strategic port identities, making you more receptive to Vizhinjam's specific transshipment role.
Sutlej's Tibet Trek 🏔️
HIGH OVERLAPIdentify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information: 1. It has an antecedent drainage system. 2. It flows through three countries. 3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation. 4. It does not form distributaries. Select the answer from the following:
Pattern Direct overlap with multiple PYQs identifying the Sutlej as an antecedent river originating in Tibet.
Brahmaputra and Indus rivers are antecedent rivers. Which one of the following may be the true definition of an antecedent drainage?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized 'antecedent drainage' as a feature of the Indus and Brahmaputra systems, narrowing down your candidates.
Consider the following facts of the rivers of the Indus system : 1. The Satluj originates in Tibet where it is known as Langchen Khambab 2. The Satluj is a classic example of an antecedent river 3. The Jhelum is the largest tributary of the Indus System Select the answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed that the Satluj originates in Tibet and is a classic example of an antecedent river.
Which one of the following does not characterise the Himalayas?
Why this matches: You would have locked in the fact that the Indus, Sutlej, and Brahmaputra all share the antecedent drainage characteristic.
With reference to the drainage system of India, consider the following statements: 1. The Indus river flows through two Union Territories within the sovereign boundaries of India. 2. The Ganga, Indus, and Brahmaputra are classified as international rivers because they traverse multiple sovereign nations. 3. The Indian drainage system is structurally organized into 30 major river basins and 103 sub-basins. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your knowledge of international rivers traversing multiple nations, including the Indus system.
With reference to the drainage system of the Himalayas, which of the following rivers is characterized as an antecedent river that originates from the Raksas Tal (Rakas Lake) and enters India through the Shipki La pass?
Why this matches: You would have nailed the answer by matching the antecedent character and Raksas Tal origin directly to the Satluj River.
With reference to the Satluj River, consider the following statements: 1. It originates from the Raksas Tal near Mansarovar lake in Tibet at an altitude of approximately 4,600 meters. 2. It is classified as an antecedent river, meaning it maintained its course during the Himalayan uplift. 3. It enters India through the Shipki La pass, where it cuts through the Zanskar range. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have verified the Satluj's Tibet origin and its classification as an antecedent river in one go.
Border Patrol 🗺️
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct? Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with PYQs on state borders and international boundaries, combined with our test series' focus on Bangladesh.
Which one among the following States in India shares a boundary with the most number of States?
Why this matches: You would have instantly confirmed Statement 1 as correct, knowing Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the most number of States.
Which one among the following Indian States shares boundaries with the largest number of States?
Which of the following States border Uttar Pradesh? 1. Punjab 2. Rajasthan 3. Chattisgarh 4. Jharkhand Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your knowledge of Uttar Pradesh's specific neighbors, ensuring you locked in Statement 1 with absolute certainty.
With reference to India's international land borders and neighboring countries, consider the following statements: 1. India shares its longest international land border with Pakistan, spanning approximately 4,096 kilometers. 2. The state of Tripura is unique as it shares a border with Bangladesh but does not share a border with Myanmar. 3. Sikkim is an Indian state that shares international boundaries with three different countries: Bhutan, China, and Nepal. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you rule out Statement 2 by correcting the false claim regarding the length of the Pakistan border.
Consider the following statements regarding the international boundary between India and Bangladesh: 1. The boundary was originally demarcated based on the Radcliffe Award during the partition of the subcontinent. 2. India shares its longest international land border with Bangladesh, spanning approximately 4,096 kilometers. 3. Among the Indian states, only West Bengal, Assam, and Meghalaya share a land border with Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: You would have nailed Statement 2 as incorrect by recalling that Bangladesh, not Pakistan, forms India’s longest international land border.
Consider the following statements regarding the political geography and administrative divisions of India: 1. There are exactly four sub-national entities (States/Union Territories) in India that share international land borders with three different countries. 2. India shares its land borders with seven sovereign nations, including Sri Lanka and Myanmar. 3. The Constitution of India currently recognizes twenty-eight states and eight union territories as distinct administrative units. Which of the above is/are correct?
Falcon Capital Flight 🦅
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct? 1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds. 2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites. 3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Test Series overlap identifying Doyang Lake as a migratory stopover and Amur Falcons as non-resident travelers.
No close PYQ match in our corpus.
With reference to migratory birds visiting the Indian subcontinent, consider the following statements: 1. The Amur Falcon, locally known as Akhuipuina, breeds in North China and Eastern Mongolia before migrating to wintering grounds in South Africa. 2. The Doyang reservoir in Nagaland is globally significant as it hosts the largest recorded congregation of the Siberian Crane. 3. The Demoiselle Crane is a winter visitor to the Khichan village in Rajasthan, having traveled thousands of miles to escape harsh northern climates.
Why this matches: You would have instantly ruled out permanent residency in Statement 3 by recognizing Doyang as a stopover for birds wintering in Africa.
Consider the following statements regarding the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS): 1. The Convention is an environmental treaty administered under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 2. It focuses exclusively on the protection of migratory species within the national borders of signatory states, excluding international waters. 3. Appendix II of the Convention lists species that would significantly benefit from international cooperation, encouraging Range States to conclude global or regional agreements. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your understanding of migratory treaties, helping you confidently identify Amur Falcons as international migratory species.
Rainfed Real Estate 🌧️
HIGH OVERLAPWhich among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)? 1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas 2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions 3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap focusing on NMSA objectives and the specific role of Integrated Farming Systems in building climate resilience.
No close PYQ match in our corpus.
Consider the following statements regarding recent initiatives and missions in the Indian agricultural sector: 1. The National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) is designed to enhance agricultural productivity while simultaneously ensuring climate resilience and sustainability. 2. The Agriculture Accelerator Fund has been established specifically to support agri-startups initiated by young entrepreneurs in urban regions to bridge the digital divide. 3. The government promotes organic farming across the country through dedicated schemes such as the Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY). Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have locked in the NMSA's core mandate of climate resilience and sustainability, providing the conceptual foundation to validate Statement 3.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA): 1. It focuses on enhancing agricultural productivity specifically through location-specific integrated farming systems to ensure climate resilience. 2. The mission primarily discourages organic farming practices to prioritize immediate food security through chemical-intensive methods. 3. Water use efficiency and soil health management are core components integrated within the mission's framework. Which of the above statements are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have directly linked Integrated Farming Systems to climate resilience, allowing you to confidently select D while ignoring monoculture.
With reference to the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA), which of the following statements best describes its core objective and framework?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized that NMSA prioritizes integrated farming and resource conservation, ruling out Statement 1's monoculture and Statement 2's irrigation.
Eco-Chic Eri 🌿
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Strong thematic link between Eri Silk's unique 'vegan' characteristics and the broader logic of international eco-certifications.
Arrange the following varieties of silk in India in their order of decreasing production: 1. Muga 2. Eri 3. Mulberry 4. Tasar Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with Eri silk as a major Indian variety, providing the necessary context for its global significance.
Which of the following statements about Ecomark is/are correct? 1. Ecomark is a certification mark issued by the Bureau of Indian Standard for the product conforming to a set of standards aimed at the least impact on ecosystem. 2. The purpose of the mark is to increase awareness among the consumers towards reducing environmental impact. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: You would have mastered the logic of eco-certifications, helping you realize Statement 2 correctly describes standard environmental and quality benchmark implications.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-1 (Textile industry) A. Woolen textile B. Cotton textile C. Silk textile D. Jute textile List-II (Place) 1. Sualkuchi 2. Rishra 3. Ludhiana 4. Davangere Code :
Why this matches: You would have recognized Sualkuchi as a silk hub, grounding your understanding of the industry's regional and economic importance.
With reference to the Indian silk industry, which of the following statements uniquely identifies 'Eri Silk'?
Why this matches: You would have instantly spotted Eri Silk's 'vegan' status, making the certification's focus on premium eco-conscious markets in Statement 2 logically undeniable.
With reference to the silk industry and its regulatory framework in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Central Silk Board (CSB) is an autonomous body functioning under the administrative control of the Ministry of Textiles. 2. India is the second-largest producer of silk globally, contributing approximately 18% to the world's total silk output. 3. The production of 'Muga' silk, which is a unique variety protected by Geographical Indication (GI), is primarily concentrated in the states of Assam and Bihar. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the Ministry of Textiles' role, helping you trust the official nature of certifications for Indian exports.
With reference to the Central Silk Board (CSB) and the sericulture industry in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Central Silk Board is a statutory body functioning under the administrative control of the Ministry of Textiles. 2. One of the core mandates of the Board is to maintain the four-tier silkworm seed production network to ensure quality and productivity. 3. India is currently the largest producer of silk in the world, having recently surpassed China in total annual output. Which of the above is/are correct?
Hormuz: Gulf's Narrow Gate ⚓
HIGH OVERLAPShips from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?1. Bahrain2. Syria3. Qatar4. EgyptSelect the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with CDS 2016 and IAS 2015 geography, focusing on Persian Gulf maritime chokepoints and coastal geography.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Strait) A. Strait of Hormuz B. Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb C. Strait of Malacca D. Strait of Sunda List-II (Water Body) 1. Java Sea 2. Andaman Sea 3. Red Sea 4. Gulf of Persia Code :
Why this matches: You would have instantly linked the Strait of Hormuz to the Persian Gulf, identifying Bahrain (1) and Qatar (3) as the matches.
Which one of the following countries do NOT have direct access to the sea/ocean?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed Syria’s (2) maritime status, helping you realize it accesses different waters than the Persian Gulf straits.
Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
Why this matches: You would have locked in Syria's (2) Mediterranean coastline, allowing you to quickly eliminate it from the Persian Gulf transit requirement.
With reference to the strategic geography of the Persian Gulf and the Strait of Hormuz, consider the following statements: 1. The islands of Abu Musa, Lesser Tunb, and Greater Tunb are arranged in that specific order when moving from west to east. 2. The Strait of Hormuz is considered a minor maritime passageway as it primarily facilitates local trade between the Arabian Sea and the Gulf of Oman. 3. Both the Strait of Hormuz and the Bab-al-Mandeb serve as critical maritime choke points within the broader Indian Ocean region. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have mastered the Persian Gulf's strategic geography, making the identification of Bahrain (1) and Qatar (3) an easy win.
Consider the following statements regarding the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC): 1. It is a multimodal transport network designed to link the Indian Ocean and Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via Iran, and onward to northern Europe. 2. The corridor is primarily an air-freight initiative aimed at bypassing the maritime bottlenecks of the Suez Canal. 3. For India, the corridor serves as a strategic alternative to bypass Pakistan while accessing the markets of Central Asia and Russia. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have understood the maritime link between the Indian Ocean and Persian Gulf, narrowing down the necessary coastal participants.
Consider the following statements regarding the geographical features of the Indian Ocean region: 1. A gulf is defined as a section of the ocean that is partially surrounded by land, such as the Gulf of Aden. 2. The Indian Ocean contains several marginal seas, including the Arabian Sea and the Gulf of Mexico. 3. A strait is a narrow waterway that connects two larger bodies of water, a key example being the Strait of Malacca which links the Indian Ocean to the Pacific Ocean. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have at least recognized the definition of marginal seas and gulfs, providing the spatial context to rule out Egypt (4).
Silver Lining for Assets 🔍
HIGH OVERLAPMatch List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (INTERPOL Notice) List II (Description) A. Silver Notice 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies B. Blue Notice 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation C. Black Notice 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety D. Green Notice 4. To identify and trace criminal assets
Pattern Test Series 1 perfectly predicted the novel 2025 'Silver Notice' asset tracing addition, while TS-2 drilled the core notice types.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :List I (Group in field operation)List II (Role)A. Perimeter group1. To isolate the target areaB. Cover group2. To neutralize the targetC. Raid group3. To provide protection to the raid groupD. Support group4. To handle contingencies
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with the complex List I/List II matching format used frequently in administrative and security exams.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :List I (Old designation)List II (Revised designation As per CISF (Amendment) Act, 1983)A. Security Guard1. NaikB. Security Officer2. ConstableC. Head Security Guard3. Head ConstableD. Senior Security Guard4. Assistant CommandantCode :(a) A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1(b) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1(c) A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2(d) A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2
Why this matches: You would have honed your elimination skills for designation-based matching questions, preparing you for the structural logic of the Interpol table.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.List – I (Officer)A. TalarB. PattakolaC. SahsadhipatiD. BaladhipList – II (Duty)1. Guard of Octroi2. Officer of cases of Dacoity3. Officer of Night Guards4. Village Tax CollectorCode : A B C D
Why this matches: Practicing this would have trained you to link specific administrative roles to their official duties, a core requirement for solving Q41.
With reference to Interpol and its operational framework in India, consider the following statements: 1. Interpol has recently introduced the 'Silver Notice' specifically to assist member countries in tracing and recovering laundered assets. 2. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) acts as the National Central Bureau (NCB) for India, coordinating international law enforcement requests. 3. The 'Silver Notice' is primarily designed to alert member nations about threats to critical cyber security infrastructure. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized the 'Silver Notice' for tracing laundered assets, locking in the A-4 match and cracking the code.
In the context of international police cooperation through INTERPOL, which of the following best describes the specific purpose of a 'Yellow Notice'?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have clarified the specific criminal investigation purposes of colored notices, helping you distinguish between Blue and Yellow functions.
With reference to the institutional framework for combating transnational crime in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) serves as the designated National Central Bureau for Interpol in India, facilitating international police cooperation. 2. The BHARATPOL portal, an initiative to streamline the exchange of information on transnational crimes, was developed by the Enforcement Directorate (ED). 3. The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) utilizes advanced enforcement techniques to tackle environmental crimes that cross national borders. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have confirmed the CBI's role as the National Central Bureau, grounding your understanding of how these notices reach India.
Resilient Vertical Integration
MEDIUMWhich of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct? 1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata. 2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi. 3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.
Pattern Tests specialized lead institutes under MoEFCC collaborative platforms, following the pattern of previous research center location questions.
With reference to 'Forest Carbon Partnership Facility', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples. 2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management. 3. It assists the countries in their 'REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)' efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have sharpened your eye for complex MoEFCC partnership structures and the specific financial or technical mandates they manage.
With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements : 1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. 2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness. 3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have practiced distinguishing between autonomous MoEFCC bodies and their specific educational or research-based mandates to navigate Statement 3.
Which one of the following statements concerning research centres in India is not correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized BSI Kolkata and IIFM Bhopal as key institutional hubs, helping you lock in Statements 1 and 3.
No close TS match.
Chancellor’s India Checkmate 🇩🇪
LOWThe Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in LucknowSelect the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Recent diplomatic personnel and bilateral framework context
Which of the following statements is/are correct about recently elected Chancellor of Germany Mr. Friedrich Merz? 1. He lost in the first round of voting. 2. His coalition includes Christian Democratic Union and Christian Social Union. Select the answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: You would have pinned Merz as the Chancellor, helping you verify the timing and context of the bilateral visit's official outcomes.
No close TS match.
Dhruv's RISC-y Business 💻
LOWWhich of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct? 1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India. 2. It is India’s first homegrown 1·0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern First-time testing of the DIR-V architecture and indigenous 1.0 GHz microprocessor specifications.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about 'Make in India' Programme ?1. 'Make in India' Programme was launched in the year 2014.2. It aims at encouraging companies for manufacturing in India and facilitating investment.Select the correct answer from the code given below.Code :
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced the 'Aatmanirbhar' manufacturing logic behind Statement 1, though the technical chip specifics are entirely new.
No close TS match.
BIS: Bomb-Proof Standards 💣
MEDIUMThe Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct? 1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025. 2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies. 3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Specific testing of Bureau of Indian Standards' regulatory reach and its role in certifying specialized safety equipment.
Consider the following statements : 1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. 2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have recognized the BIS's mandate for certifying specialized security gear, helping you validate Statement 1 as a standard notification.
Which of the following statements about Ecomark is/are correct? 1. Ecomark is a certification mark issued by the Bureau of Indian Standard for the product conforming to a set of standards aimed at the least impact on ecosystem. 2. The purpose of the mark is to increase awareness among the consumers towards reducing environmental impact. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your understanding of BIS as the primary body for setting national safety and technical standards.
Which one of the following is not a component of bomb detection and disposal equipment ?
Why this matches: You would have easily identified bomb suits and blankets as disposal components, aiding your logical acceptance of Statement 2's interoperability focus.
No close TS match.
Quantum Leap for Berkeley ⚛️
MEDIUM'X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X':
Pattern Focuses on identifying specific Nobel laureates based on their country of origin and academic affiliation.
The Nobel Prize in Physics for the year 2016 was given to
Why this matches: Practicing this would have trained you to track multi-winner Physics categories, helping you focus on John Clarke and Michel H. Devoret.
With reference to the Nobel Prizes 2024 and historical scientific milestones, consider the following statements: 1. The Nobel Prize in Physics 2024 was awarded for foundational discoveries that enable machine learning through artificial neural networks. 2. The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 2024 recognized the discovery of microRNA and its role in post-transcriptional gene regulation. 3. Asima Chatterjee, the first woman to receive the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award in chemical science, was a 2024 Nobel Chemistry co-recipient for her work on epilepsy drugs.
Why this matches: You would have built the habit of verifying laureate affiliations, helping you link the American university context to John Clarke [C].
Grand Slam Grand Slam! 🎾
MEDIUMWhich of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct? The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14. There is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Strong thematic continuity with legacy UPSC sports questions on Grand Slam basics and international sporting regulations.
Consider the following statements about grand slam tennis tournaments: 1. There are four grand slanm annual tennis tournaments. 2. The first grand slam of a year is the US Open. 3. The Australian and the US tournaments are played on grass court Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have solidified your core knowledge of the four tournaments, giving you the confidence to validate Statement 1's shared governance.
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of holding of the Grand Slam tennis tournaments every year ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with the sequential calendar of the four majors, building comfort with the Grand Slam's organizational structure.
With reference to the 2025 ICC Men's Champions Trophy, consider the following statements: 1. Pakistan has secured automatic qualification for the tournament by virtue of being the host nation. 2. Qualification for the remaining seven slots was determined by the final standings of the 2023 ICC Men's Cricket World Cup group stage. 3. The tournament format has been expanded to include all ten ICC full-member teams to ensure a wider round-robin competition.
Why this matches: You would have honed your skills in analyzing multi-statement sports qualification rules, helping you navigate the age and entry requirements in Statement 2.
Chips are Down 🔌
LOWWhich one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?
Pattern Tests regional industrial geography and the emerging semiconductor manufacturing landscape across Indian states.
No close PYQ match in our corpus.
In the context of India's major industrial regions and their specialized production profiles, which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Why this matches: You would have ruled out Ahmedabad-Vadodara (Gujarat) as a petrochemical hub, narrowing your focus to the emerging semiconductor clusters instead.
In the context of India's recent geological surveys and mineral exploration, which of the following pairs of locations and their associated mineral significance is correctly matched?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have strengthened your ability to map strategic industrial locations to specific states, aiding your process of elimination.
Bharat's High-Res Radar 🛰️
MEDIUMWhich of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct? Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level. It was developed by IIT Delhi. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Overlap with MoES initiatives and identification of IIT Delhi's role in related high-resolution mapping projects.
Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The Government of India has discontinued the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana. 2. The Government of India has approved the continuation of Restructured Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme. Select the answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with the government's shift toward localized, weather-based insurance schemes, supporting the logic of Statement 1.
Which of the following statements with regard to rainfall in India is/are correct ? 1. Most of the rainfall in India is due to the south-west monsoon. 2. In South India, rainfall decreases away from the Eastern Ghats. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Why this matches: You would have recalled the fundamental patterns of Indian rainfall, providing the geographical context for why high-resolution cluster forecasting is necessary.
With reference to 'Mission Mausam', recently approved by the Union Cabinet, consider the following statements: 1. It is a multi-faceted initiative executed under the Ministry of Earth Sciences to enhance India's weather and climate forecasting capabilities. 2. The mission includes the deployment of advanced technologies such as Doppler Weather Radars and High-Performance Computing to improve real-time monitoring. 3. The primary objective of the mission is to revive India's ancient maritime trade routes and cultural connections across the Indian Ocean. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly linked 'Mission Mausam' to the Ministry of Earth Sciences, helping you correctly identify IITM Pune as the developer.
With reference to the India Meteorological Department (IMD) and its role in weather forecasting, consider the following statements: 1. The Weather Analysis and Forecast Enabling System (WAFES) is a decision-support system designed to mitigate the socioeconomic impacts of severe weather events. 2. The IMD has been issuing operational long-range forecasts for the Southwest Monsoon rainfall since its establishment in 1875. 3. To predict monsoon behavior, the IMD monitors pressure differences between specific locations in the Atlantic Ocean and Australia. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have locked in the IMD’s focus on high-resolution decision-support systems, making Statement 1 a logical choice for you.
With reference to the recent developments in Landslide Risk Mapping in India, consider the following statements: 1. India's first high-resolution landslide susceptibility map covering the entire country was developed by a team from IIT Delhi. 2. The data from this national-level landslide risk mapping is restricted for internal government use and is not available on public portals. 3. Approximately 59% of India's landmass is categorized as susceptible to the dual risks of landslides and earthquakes. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have spotted IIT Delhi’s specific association with landslide mapping, helping you rule them out for the Bharat Forecast System.
Boong-ing it to BAFTA 🎥
LOWConsider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong': 1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children's and Family Film category. 2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi. 3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Pattern Tested Manipur's cultural cinematic shift following thematic trends from traditional Shumang Leela performing arts.
No close PYQ match in our corpus.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Shumang Leela', a traditional performing art form: 1. It is a traditional folk theatre form that originated in the state of Manipur. 2. The performances are exclusively restricted to male actors, with men playing female roles (Nupi Shabi). 3. It serves as a medium for social awareness and reflects the cultural traditions of the Meitei community. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have locked in the Manipuri cultural context, helping you more confidently associate Lakshmipriya Devi's regional drama with statement 2.
Chain Reaction ⛓️
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct? 1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration. 2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds. 3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access. 4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct evolution of UPSC 2020 technology fundamentals, expanding on immutability and distributed ledger mechanics.
With reference to "Blockchain Technology", consider the following statements : 1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user 2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only. 3. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody's permission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have instantly validated the 'no single user' control and public inspection aspects, locking in statements 1 and 2.
With reference to Web 3-0, consider the following statements : 1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. 2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks. 3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced the decentralized, collectively operated nature of the technology, helping you confirm statement 2.
With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements : 1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets. 2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. 3. They can be traded or exchanged a equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have recognized blockchain as a ledger for unique assets, providing the conceptual background to trust statement 4's immutability.
With reference to Blockchain Technology and Cryptocurrencies, consider the following statements: 1. A Hard Fork represents a permanent divergence from the previous version of the blockchain, often requiring all nodes to upgrade to the new protocol. 2. Soft Forks are backward-compatible changes where non-upgraded nodes can still process transactions and see the new blocks as valid. 3. Initial Coin Offerings (ICOs) are a regulated fundraising mechanism used by established corporations to issue equity through centralized ledger technology. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have taught you about nodes and protocol upgrades, making the distributed database in statement 2 feel intuitive.
With reference to Web 3.0 and its underlying technologies, consider the following statements: 1. Web 3.0 is founded on blockchain technology, enabling a decentralized internet where users have ownership of their data. 2. In the Web 3.0 ecosystem, Peer-to-Peer (P2P) lending platforms function by connecting individual borrowers directly with large financial institutions to ensure liquidity. 3. Cryptocurrencies, which are integral to many Web 3.0 applications, are typically generated through a process of solving complex mathematical puzzles. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: You would have nailed the decentralization and data ownership concepts, directly supporting the transparency and non-alteration claims in statement 1.
With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: 1. They are digital assets that utilize blockchain technology to establish verifiable ownership and authenticity of unique items. 2. Unlike standard cryptocurrencies, NFTs are non-interchangeable and cannot be traded at equivalency with one another. 3. NFTs are typically backed by physical assets or sovereign guarantees, making them similar to traditional fiat currencies. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed blockchain's role in verifying authenticity, aligning perfectly with the immutability described in statement 4.
Ship it or Drip it? 📦
MEDIUMAn e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:
Pattern Deep dive into e-commerce operational models, building on previous years' inventory vs marketplace distinctions.
With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. 2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you contrast the 'marketplace' model against the inventory-light 'Dropshipping Model' (A) described in the source.
A market, in which there are a large number of firms, homogeneous product, infinite elasticity of demand for an individual firm and no control over price by firms, is termed as________.
Why this matches: You would have recognized that the seller's 'control over pricing' in the question contradicts the price-taking nature of perfect competition.
A market in which there are large numbers of sellers of a particular product, but each seller sells somewhat differentiated but close products is termed as
Why this matches: You would have narrowed down the options by distinguishing between market structures and specific e-commerce operational revenue models.
With reference to the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy in India's e-commerce sector, consider the following statements: 1. In the marketplace model, the e-commerce entity acts as a facilitator between buyers and sellers, and 100% FDI is permitted under the automatic route. 2. The inventory model allows the e-commerce platform to own the goods sold on its site, and it is eligible for up to 49% FDI to encourage domestic logistics. 3. An e-commerce entity providing a marketplace is prohibited from exercising ownership or control over the inventory intended to be sold on its platform.
Why this matches: You would have mastered the marketplace-vs-inventory distinction, making the third-party shipping mechanism of the Dropshipping Model (A) instantly recognizable.
In the context of market interventions and price controls, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Why this matches: You would have understood pricing floors and ceilings, helping you contextualize why a seller would need control over retail pricing.
In the context of market structures, which of the following best describes the nature of pricing power and product characteristics in a monopolistically competitive market?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have solidified your understanding of price influence, allowing you to focus purely on the logistics-based definition required.
Inclusion's Triple Play 🎯
HIGH OVERLAPWhich one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with RBI dashboards in PYQs and a verbatim match of parameters in our Test Series.
Which one of the following is the name of the dashboard launched recently by the Reserve Bank of India to assess and monitor the progress of financial inclusion by capturing relevant parameters ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with RBI's 'Antardrishti' dashboard, grounding your knowledge of the central bank's financial inclusion metrics.
With reference to India, Consider the following: 1. Nationalization of Banks 2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks 3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the “financial inclusion” in India.
Why this matches: You would have recognized the historical context of financial inclusion, though it wouldn't have directly revealed the specific FI-Index parameters.
L.B.S. is one of the economic measures taken by the Government of India for financial inclusion. What is L.B.S. in this context ?
Why this matches: You would have locked in the Lead Banking Scheme's role in inclusion, helping you navigate the general subject matter of the question.
With reference to the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) in India, which of the following statements is correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the RBI's role and the diverse sectors covered, narrowing your focus to official central bank parameters.
With reference to the institutional framework and measurement of financial inclusion in India, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Why this matches: You would have instantly spotted the 'Access, Usage, and Quality' parameters in Option D, allowing you to confidently select C.
Digital Democratization 🌐
HIGH OVERLAPWhich one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative?
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with CDS-I 2024 and specific structural unbundling concepts from our Economy Test Series.
Which of the following statements about Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is/are correct ? 1. It was launched in 2021 by the Government of India. 2. Its aim is to democratize e-commerce in India. 3. India has surpassed China in 2024 in e-retail penetration. Select the answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: You would have recognized that ONDC aims to democratize e-commerce, directly supporting the objective of breaking platform dominance in Option C.
With reference to the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC), which of the following statements best describes its structural and functional framework within the Indian e-commerce ecosystem?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you identify the 'interoperable protocol' and 'unbundling' as the mechanism for ending platform-centric dominance in C.
With reference to the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC), consider the following statements: 1. It is a Section 8 company initiated by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology to reduce regulatory compliance for e-commerce firms. 2. It functions as an intermediary layer that enables a buyer registered on one e-commerce platform to purchase goods directly from a seller on a different platform. 3. It adopts a marketplace model where the network facilitates connections between buyers and sellers without the network itself owning any inventory.
Why this matches: You would have narrowed down the functional layer of ONDC, ruling out government control or direct management mentioned in Option A.
Regarding the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) and the regulatory landscape of e-commerce in India, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Why this matches: You would have instantly eliminated the inventory-led model in A and B, locking in the interoperability and level playing field in C.
Sovereign Digital Strike 💸
HIGH OVERLAPWhich one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with PYQ 2024 and 2023 regarding the liability and sovereign nature of the Digital Rupee versus UPI.
With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements : 1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system. 2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have understood the programmability and non-SWIFT nature of CBDCs, providing essential background on its digital-first architecture.
Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you distinguish UPI as a payment interface for bank transfers rather than a digital currency.
Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee : 1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy. 2. It appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet. 3. It is insured against inflation by its very design. 4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized that Digital Rupee is an RBI liability, allowing you to confidently mark Statement D as incorrect.
With reference to the Indian economy and digital payment systems, consider the following statements: 1. The Digital Rupee (e₹) is a digital form of legal tender issued by the Reserve Bank of India and is considered equivalent to sovereign paper currency. 2. Unlike physical cash, the e-Rupee is not a liability of the Reserve Bank of India but is a liability of the commercial bank that issues the digital wallet. 3. While the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a highly efficient payment mechanism, it is not classified as legal tender in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have nailed the fact that e-Rupee is an RBI liability, directly contradicting the bank-liability claim in Option D.
With reference to India's Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI), consider the following statements: 1. The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a real-time payment system that facilitates inter-bank transactions through a mobile platform. 2. DigiLocker is a digital repository that allows citizens to store and access authentic documents, thereby reducing the need for physical copies. 3. The Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) was specifically developed to promote a cash-based economy and is excluded from the digital payment infrastructure. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have locked in Statement A by confirming UPI is a real-time system facilitating inter-bank transactions through mobile platforms.
With reference to the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) or 'e-Rupee' launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed that e-Rupee is an RBI balance sheet liability, making the bank-liability error in D obvious.
Token of Appreciation 🪙
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct? 1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology. 2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24 × 7 access, promoting financial inclusion. 3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Core blockchain principles from the 2022 NFT and Web 3.0 questions applied to asset tokenization and financial inclusion.
With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements : 1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets. 2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. 3. They can be traded or exchanged a equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have instantly nailed Statement 1 by applying the concept of digital representation of physical assets on a blockchain.
With reference to Web 3-0, consider the following statements : 1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. 2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks. 3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you recognize the decentralization and user-control benefits of blockchain, making Statements 2 and 3 logically sound.
With reference to "Blockchain Technology", consider the following statements : 1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user 2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only. 3. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody's permission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have ruled out the 'cryptocurrency only' fallacy, allowing you to correctly accept asset tokenization as a valid blockchain application.
With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: 1. They are digital assets that utilize blockchain technology to establish verifiable ownership and authenticity of unique items. 2. Unlike standard cryptocurrencies, NFTs are non-interchangeable and cannot be traded at equivalency with one another. 3. NFTs are typically backed by physical assets or sovereign guarantees, making them similar to traditional fiat currencies. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have locked in Statement 1 by recalling how blockchain establishes verifiable ownership and authenticity for unique items.
With reference to Blockchain Technology and Cryptocurrencies, consider the following statements: 1. A Hard Fork represents a permanent divergence from the previous version of the blockchain, often requiring all nodes to upgrade to the new protocol. 2. Soft Forks are backward-compatible changes where non-upgraded nodes can still process transactions and see the new blocks as valid. 3. Initial Coin Offerings (ICOs) are a regulated fundraising mechanism used by established corporations to issue equity through centralized ledger technology. Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the digital asset ecosystem, which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the differences between Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) and Cryptocurrencies?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced that digital assets represent ownership of specific items, directly supporting the logic behind asset tokenization.
Social Bond Ambition 🤝
MEDIUMA bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:
Pattern Extends the existing Sovereign Green Bond and ESG framework focus to specialized Sustainability Bond definitions.
Consider the following statements related to 'Sovereign Green Bonds':1. Union Budget 2021-22 announced the issue of these bonds2. The Government of India has approved a Sovereign Green Bonds Framework3. These bonds are meant to be issued for mobilizing resources for green projects4. These bonds are financial instruments that generate proceeds for investment in environmentally sustainable and climate suitable projectsHow many of the above statements are correct?
Why this matches: You would have mastered the 'Green Bond' concept here, allowing you to narrow down Option [C] when social projects were added.
With reference to the Plastic Credit Bond (PCB) and plastic waste management, consider the following statements: 1. The Plastic Credit Bond is a financial instrument issued by the World Bank to mobilize capital for plastic recycling and waste reduction projects. 2. The initial projects funded under this bond mechanism are specifically targeted at reducing plastic waste generation in Ghana and Nigeria. 3. The Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) framework is designed to involve brand owners and manufacturers in the environmental lifecycle management of plastic products.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with niche project-specific bonds, helping you recognize the logic of dedicated proceeds for targeted outcomes.
Under the Government of India's Sovereign Green Bond Framework, which of the following project categories is strictly excluded from receiving proceeds raised through these bonds?
Why this matches: You would have understood strict project-category ringfencing, making the hybrid 'environmental and social' definition of [C] an intuitive next step.
In the context of sustainable finance and global debt markets, the term 'Greenium' is best described as:
Why this matches: Practicing this would have provided the sustainable finance context needed to see through the pricing mechanics toward the underlying bond types.
Invoiced to Success 📑
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements about M1xchange's role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Extensive coverage of MSME credit mechanisms and the specific 'collateral-free' nature of modern financing tools across our test series.
Consider the following statements with reference to India : 1. According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹ 15 crore and ₹ 25 crore. 2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have sharpened your knowledge of bank-led MSME financing, helping you scrutinize M1xchange's specific non-bank role.
Consider the following statements about the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs): 1. The MSMEs comprise a dynamic sector of the Indian economy providing large employment opportunities. 2. MSMEs reire low capital cost and help industrialization of backward regions. 3. MSMEs contribute enormously to socio-economic development. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have understood the MSME sector's capital-light nature, steering you toward the low-collateral logic required for statement 1.
Which one of the following statements about a borrower from a Microfinance Company is not correct?
Why this matches: You would have spotted the 'collateral-free' norm in specialized MSME lending, helping you rule out statement 1's claim of collateral-based loans.
Consider the following statements regarding the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector in India: 1. The MSME sector is a critical export engine, accounting for more than 40% of India's total merchandise exports. 2. According to the MSMED Act, 2006, a medium enterprise is defined as one with an investment in plant and machinery between ₹10 crore and ₹25 crore. 3. The sector's contribution to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is approximately 20%, reflecting its secondary role compared to large-scale industries. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced the critical economic role of MSMEs, providing the necessary background for financing-related queries.
With reference to the recent policy initiatives aimed at improving credit flow and ease of doing business for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in India, consider the following statements: 1. The current definition of MSMEs is based on a composite criterion that integrates both investment in plant and machinery and annual turnover. 2. The Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) is an institutional mechanism designed to facilitate the discounting of invoices for MSMEs from corporate and other buyers. 3. The Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) is specifically structured to provide collateral-free funding exclusively to the corporate small business sector.
Why this matches: You would have mastered the current MSME policy landscape, making the evaluation of specific credit-flow platforms like TReDS more intuitive.
With reference to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector in India, consider the following statements regarding the revised classification criteria: 1. The 2020 revision eliminated the distinction between the manufacturing and service sectors, applying uniform investment and turnover limits to both. 2. A 'Small' enterprise is defined as a unit where the investment in plant and machinery does not exceed Rs. 10 crore and the annual turnover does not exceed Rs. 50 crore. 3. A 'Medium' enterprise is categorized by an investment limit of up to Rs. 100 crore and a turnover limit of up to Rs. 500 crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have solidified your understanding of MSME classification, ensuring a firm grasp of the target beneficiaries of M1xchange.
Crowded Out of the Market 📉
HIGH OVERLAPWhich one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy?
Pattern Direct conceptual repetition of CDS 2023 and CDS 2021 questions on public-private investment dynamics.
The contraction of private investment spending due to deficit spending by the Government is called
Why this matches: You would have instantly linked deficit spending to private investment contraction, making Option B the only logical choice.
The increase in private investment spending induced by the increase in Government spending is known as
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you contrast 'Crowding In' with the source question's 'Crowding Out' to secure the correct definition.
Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal stimulus”?
Why this matches: You would have recognized the broader context of fiscal stimulus, helping you distinguish between general boost and specific investment displacement.
In the context of macroeconomics, consider the following statements regarding the 'Crowding Out' effect: 1. It occurs when increased government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, making it more expensive for the private sector to secure loans. 2. The issuance of government bonds to finance fiscal deficits competes with private sector investments for the limited pool of available capital. 3. A significant increase in government borrowing typically leads to an expansion of available loanable funds for private investment, thereby lowering capital costs. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have nailed Option B by recognizing the verbatim explanation of government borrowing driving up interest rates for private loans.
With reference to the concept of Fiscal Deficit in an economy, consider the following statements: 1. It is calculated as the difference between total expenditure and total revenue receipts only. 2. It serves as a comprehensive indicator of the government's total borrowing requirements from both internal and external sources. 3. Persistent high fiscal deficits can lead to inflationary pressures and the 'crowding out' of private investment. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have locked in the concept of total borrowing requirements, providing the necessary foundation to solve for investment impacts.
Rare Earth Reality Check ⛏️
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct? 1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs). 2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India. 3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector. 4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with 2025 and 2012 PYQs regarding China's production dominance and REE applications.
Consider the following statements : Statement I : Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors. Statement II : Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the extensive technological utility of REEs in electronics, validating Statement 1 from the source question.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters. 2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters. 3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on seafloor in international waters. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: You would have recognized REEs as a distinct category of minerals found in international waters, providing basic context for the question.
With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths. 2. Monazite contains thorium. 3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. 4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have taught you that India's domestic rare earth sector is tightly regulated, hinting at marginal global production shares.
Consider the following statements regarding the global production and distribution of Rare Earth Elements (REEs): 1. The extraction and processing of rare earth elements are highly concentrated, with China currently serving as the world's largest producer. 2. Rare earth elements are typically found in isolation as pure metallic veins within the earth's crust, making their extraction straightforward. 3. These elements are indispensable for the manufacturing of high-tech applications, including permanent magnets for electric vehicles and renewable energy solutions. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have locked in Statement 2 by confirming China is the world's largest producer, helping you eliminate India's runner-up claim.
Consider the following statements regarding Neodymium and Praseodymium, which are frequently discussed in the context of critical mineral supply chains: 1. Both Neodymium and Praseodymium are classified as Rare Earth Elements (REEs). 2. These elements are categorized as non-metals, characterized by their high electrical resistance and brittle nature. 3. They are essential components in the manufacturing of high-strength permanent magnets used in electric vehicle motors and wind turbines. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: You would have easily ruled out Statement 4 by knowing REEs are metallic elements, even if you hadn't memorized the count of 17.
With reference to the mineral sector and critical minerals in India, consider the following statements: 1. The identification of critical minerals by the Government of India is primarily based on their economic importance and the risks associated with their supply chains. 2. The National Mineral Policy 2019 was designed to restrict private sector participation in the exploration of strategic minerals to ensure national security. 3. India possesses significant reserves of various metallic minerals that are essential for the country's industrial and technological development. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have verified the government's economic criteria for identifying critical minerals, making the 2025 NCMM in Statement 3 highly plausible.
Aviation: Hull-istic Cover ✈️
MEDIUMWhich of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct? 1. 'Aviation : Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment. 2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Combination of legacy insurance classification concepts and recent 2024 aviation legislative reforms found in our test series.
Consider the following statements about Employees’ State Insurance (ESI) Act, 1948 : 1. The Act is applicable to non-seasonal factories using power and employing 20 or more persons. 2. The ESI Scheme has already been implemented in different areas in all the States/Union Territories of India. 3. ESI Scheme being contributory in nature* all the employees in the factories or establishments to which the Act applies shall be insured. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with the technicality of statutory insurance acts, helping you process Statement 2's legal framework.
Consider the following statements: I. Life Insurance Corporation of India is the oldest insurance company in India. II. National Insurance Company Limited was natinoalised in the year 1972 and made a subsidiary of General Insurance Corporation of India. III. Headquarters of United India Insurance Company Limited are located at Chennai. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: You would have recognized the pattern of testing General Insurance Corporation subsidiaries, narrowing down Statement 1 as a non-life insurance category.
Consider the following statements: 1. The loans disbursed to farmers under Kisan Credit Card Scheme are covered under Rashtriya Krishi Beema Yojna of Life Insurance Corporation of India. 2. The Kisan Credit Card holders are provided personal accident insurance of Rs 50,000 for accidental death and Rs 25,000 for permanent disability. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you distinguish between physical asset coverage and personal accident liability, a core distinction in the source question.
Consider the following statements regarding the Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak Act of 2024: 1. It establishes a two-tier appellate system to improve dispute resolution in the aviation sector. 2. The Act introduces a structured appellate framework specifically designed to address grievances in the maritime sector. 3. It aims to enhance the efficiency of dispute resolution mechanisms in the aviation industry. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have cracked the legal evolution of the aviation sector, making the 1999 Montreal Convention's liability tiering easier to verify.
With reference to the civil aviation sector in India, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have sharpened your grasp of DGCA and international regulatory standards, helping you lock in the correct aviation insurance protocols.
Crowd-Funded & Credible 💰
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.
Pattern Direct conceptual overlap with P2P lending and digital financing models for MSMEs across past papers and test series.
With reference to 'Stand Up India Scheme', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. 2. It provides for refinance through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with MSME-centric funding schemes, helping you validate Statement 2's focus on SME capital access.
With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure. 2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Why this matches: You would have understood the mechanics of capital and equity financing, making Statement 2's lower cost of capital argument intuitive.
With reference to Web 3-0, consider the following statements : 1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. 2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks. 3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have connected blockchain-based social networks and user-led operations to the web-based solicitation platforms mentioned in Statement 1.
With reference to Peer-to-Peer (P2P) lending in India, consider the following statements: 1. It is a form of crowdfunding that enables individuals to obtain loans directly from other individuals without the use of a traditional financial intermediary. 2. In India, these platforms are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India as a category of Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs). 3. The interest rates on these platforms are strictly fixed by the regulatory authority to ensure uniformity across the sector.
Why this matches: You would have directly recognized crowdfunding as a platform-based solicitation of funds from individuals, locking in Statement 1 and Statement 2.
With reference to Web 3.0 and its underlying technologies, consider the following statements: 1. Web 3.0 is founded on blockchain technology, enabling a decentralized internet where users have ownership of their data. 2. In the Web 3.0 ecosystem, Peer-to-Peer (P2P) lending platforms function by connecting individual borrowers directly with large financial institutions to ensure liquidity. 3. Cryptocurrencies, which are integral to many Web 3.0 applications, are typically generated through a process of solving complex mathematical puzzles. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have solidified your understanding of P2P platforms and decentralized ownership, helping you verify the web-based nature of Statement 1.
With reference to the PM Vishwakarma Scheme, consider the following statements: 1. It is a centrally sponsored initiative implemented by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME). 2. The scheme aims to organize traditional artisans and craftspeople into clusters to achieve economies of scale and improve market reach. 3. Under this scheme, artisans are classified as microenterprises to facilitate collateral-free loans specifically under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana for amounts exceeding ₹200 lakh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have mastered the importance of capital access for MSMEs, allowing you to confidently confirm the cost-saving benefits in Statement 2.
Committed to the Reform 📝
HIGH OVERLAPWith reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details : 1. R.N. Malhotra Committee — Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India — Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India 2. L.C. Gupta Committee — Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India — Securities and Exchange Board of India 3. Urjit R. Patel Committee — Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector — Reserve Bank of India 4. Y.H. Malegam Committee — Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India — Reserve Bank of India In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched ?
Pattern Core overlap with PYQ matches on the Malhotra Committee and Test Series coverage of the Urjit Patel/RBI relationship.
In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? 1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament 2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees 3. Finance Commission 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission 5. NITI Aayog Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your understanding of insurance as a regulated sector, providing context for the Malhotra Committee's reform legacy.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (Committee) (Subject) A. Rangarajan 1. Tax Reform Committee 2. Insurance Reform B. Narsimhan Committee 0 ~ 3. Disinvestment of C. Kelkar shares in PSEs Committee 4. Banking Sector D. Malhotra Reform Committee Code : A B C D
Why this matches: You would have instantly linked the Malhotra Committee to Insurance Reform, allowing you to scrutinize Row 1's institutional origin more closely.
Which of the following committees examined and suggested Financial Sector Reforms ?
Why this matches: You would have recognized the broader ecosystem of financial sector committees, helping you differentiate between banking and non-banking reform bodies.
With reference to the regulatory framework of financial entities in India, consider the following statements: 1. Housing Finance Companies and Credit Information Companies are under the direct regulatory purview of the Reserve Bank of India. 2. Venture Capital Funds and Insurance Companies are exempted from registration with the Reserve Bank of India as they are regulated by other statutory authorities. 3. Under the provisions of the Chit Funds Act, 1982, Chit fund companies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India to ensure financial stability.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the RBI's direct regulatory purview over Housing Finance, helping you evaluate the institutional logic in Row 3.
With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of India, consider the following statements: 1. The MPC is a six-member body consisting of three members from the Reserve Bank of India and three members appointed by the Government of India. 2. The committee is legally mandated to meet at least four times a year, though it currently follows a bi-monthly schedule. 3. The decisions made by the MPC regarding the policy repo rate are advisory in nature and require final approval from the Union Finance Ministry. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have connected Urjit Patel specifically to the Monetary Policy Committee, enabling you to swiftly knock out Row 3's housing claim.
Non-Bankable Balance ⚖️
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India: 1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits. 2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI. 3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself. 4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.
Pattern Direct overlap with legacy PYQs and test series on the structural prohibitions of NBFCs regarding deposits, cheques, and insurance.
With reference to the Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements : 1. They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government. 2. They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you lock in Statement 1 by confirming that NBFCs are legally barred from accepting demand deposits.
Which one of the following statements about Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) is not correct?
Why this matches: You would have nailed Statements 1, 3, and 4 by identifying that NBFCs lack DICGC cover and cannot issue cheques.
A non-banking financial company cannot
Why this matches: You would have instantly eliminated Statement 3 by recognizing that NBFCs cannot issue cheques or seek demand deposits from the public.
With reference to Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements: 1. NBFCs are integral to the payment and settlement system, allowing them to issue cheques drawn on themselves. 2. Unlike commercial banks, NBFCs are strictly prohibited from accepting demand deposits from the public. 3. All NBFCs must be registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to conduct credit operations.
Why this matches: You would have cracked the code for Statements 1 and 3 by verifying the prohibition on demand deposits and payment system participation.
With reference to Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements: 1. NBFCs are integral to the payment and settlement system and can issue cheques drawn on themselves. 2. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the primary regulatory authority for the supervision of NBFCs. 3. Unlike commercial banks, the facility of deposit insurance from the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to NBFC depositors. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you rule out Statement 3 and understand that RBI registration has specific regulatory exceptions.
With reference to Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements: 1. NBFCs are integral to the payment and settlement system and are authorized to issue cheques drawn on themselves. 2. The deposit insurance facility of the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to depositors of NBFCs. 3. NBFCs are prohibited from investing in or acquiring securities issued by the Government of India. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have spotted the DICGC and payment system exclusions immediately, making it easy to select the correct combination 1 and 4.
Poverty’s Plus-Two 📈
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
Pattern Direct overlap on NITI Aayog's expansion to 12 indicators and specific indicators like Maternal Health and Bank Accounts.
With reference to 'Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index', which of the following statements is/are correct ?1. It was developed and introduced in 2010.2. It measures extreme poverty and includes those living on less than one dollar per day.Select the correct answer using the code given below :Code :
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the 2010 origin of the global MPI, helping you separate global history from India’s specific customization.
According to the National Multi-dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) constructed by the NITI Aayog, a household is considered deprived if 1. a single member of the household is identified as under-nourished 2. the body mass index of a woman member, between 15 years and 49 years of age, is below 18·5 kg/m² Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Why this matches: You would have directly recognized specific health indicators like nutrition, helping you validate the dimensions tested in statement 2.
Which one of the following indicators is included in the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)? (a) Years of schooling (b) Literacy rate (c) Life expectancy (d) Per capita income
Why this matches: You would have locked in education-based indicators, providing a solid foundation to confirm NITI Aayog's multidimensional framework in the source question.
With reference to the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), consider the following statements: 1. The Global MPI is a joint initiative of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty & Human Development Initiative (OPHI). 2. The National Multidimensional Poverty Index in India utilizes 10 indicators, identical to the Global MPI framework, to ensure international comparability. 3. Since 2005, India has witnessed a consistent decline in the percentage of its population living in multidimensional poverty. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have spotted that Global MPI uses only 10 indicators, instantly making statement 3's 'common indicators' claim look suspicious.
Consider the following statements regarding the indicators used in the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) in India: 1. The index includes health indicators such as nutrition and maternal health, but excludes standard of living indicators like bank accounts. 2. Education indicators in the index are limited to years of schooling, specifically excluding school attendance to avoid data duplication. 3. The standard of living dimension includes access to cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, and ownership of assets. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have specifically highlighted Maternal Health and Bank Accounts as NITI Aayog's additions, helping you rule out statement 3.
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI): 1. The MPI was first introduced in 2010 and is jointly published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI). 2. The index is designed to replace traditional income-based poverty measures by focusing solely on economic criteria and financial assets. 3. According to the Global MPI 2024 report, India is home to the largest number of multidimensionally poor people in the world. Which of the above is/are correct?
Gene-ius Delivery 🧬
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct? 1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease. 2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine. 3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with 2015/2021 PYQs on gene therapy and nanotech-driven targeted delivery systems.
In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements : 1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg. 2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have clarified that genetic interventions target specific hereditary flaws, helping you validate Statement 1 as a corrective mechanism.
_ Which of the following statements about DNA is/are correct ? 1. DNA is the hereditary material of all living organisms. . 2. All segments of DNA code for synthesis of proteins. 3. Nuclear DNA is double helical with two nucleotide chains which run anti-parallel. 4. DNA is also found in mitochondria. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Why this matches: You would have understood the specific segment-based nature of DNA, helping you doubt that medicine would alter the entire DNA sequence.
Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to genetically modified organisms ?
Why this matches: You would have recognized that genetic modification involves transferring specific genes, directly supporting the targeted nature described in Statements 1 and 3.
With reference to Haemophilia A and recent advancements in its treatment, consider the following statements: 1. It is a genetic bleeding disorder characterized by a deficiency in specific clotting factors in the blood. 2. The inheritance of this condition is restricted solely to the maternal lineage, as the father cannot contribute the necessary genetic mutation. 3. Indian researchers have successfully conducted trials utilizing gene therapy as a potential long-term treatment for this disorder. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your understanding of genetic disorders, making the corrective purpose of genetic medicine in Statement 1 clear.
With reference to human genetics and inherited disorders, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Which of the following statements regarding the classification and nature of genetic disorders is INCORRECT?
Predictive Text Wizardry 🤖
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct? 1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability. 2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors. 3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Core definitions of machine learning optimization and next-word prediction overlap with our ML and NLP training modules.
Consider the following statements : I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the hierarchical relationship where deep learning and LLMs sit within the broader machine learning domain.
With reference to Natural Language Processing (NLP) in the field of Artificial Intelligence, consider the following statements: 1. It employs computational algorithms to extract linguistic rules and convert human language into a machine-readable format. 2. It is primarily used to reduce communication efficiency by introducing complex linguistic layers between computers and users. 3. It can be effectively utilized for sentiment analysis to gauge public opinions and emotional states from unstructured data. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you recognize linguistic extraction and machine-readable formatting as the foundational steps for LLM text generation.
With reference to the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) and India's role in the AI landscape, which of the following statements is correct?
Why this matches: You would have at least understood the current institutional AI landscape, providing general context to approach the technical LLM question.
With reference to the applications of Artificial Intelligence (AI) and its subfields in various sectors, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Why this matches: You would have nailed Statements 1 and 2 by recognizing next-word prediction and error minimization as fundamental machine learning mechanisms.
Radar's Blind Spot 📡
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct? 1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material. 2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies. 3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Combines fundamental electromagnetic scattering principles from previous PYQs with specific defense technology applications from our test series.
Which of the following statements about electromagnetic waves, sound waves and water waves is/are correct ? 1. They exhibit reflection 2. They carry energy 3. They exert pressure 4. They can travel in vacuum Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced that electromagnetic waves exhibit reflection, helping you understand how radar detection works on aircraft.
Consider the following statements 1. Light waves can travel in vacuum. 2. Light waves can be refracted. 3. Light waves are electromagnetic. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have confirmed the electromagnetic nature of light, providing the foundational physics needed to evaluate radar-absorbing material properties.
Consider the following statements with respect to the Radar Imaging Satellite (RISAT-2): 1. This is the first Indian satellite with microwave imaging configuration on board. 2. The satellite will boost India’s defence capabilities. 3. It can take images of the earth day and night, even under rainy and cloudy-conditions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have clarified how microwave imaging and radar penetrate conditions, aiding your analysis of statement 2's frequency-based detection.
With reference to the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) and India's aerial defense capabilities, consider the following statements: 1. The AMCA is being developed as a fifth-generation multirole fighter jet equipped with advanced stealth features to minimize radar cross-section. 2. Currently, the United States of America is the only nation in the world to have successfully operationalized a fifth-generation fighter jet. 3. The Indian Air Force has demonstrated its strategic capability to use advanced aircraft for precision strikes against cross-border threats, as seen in the Balakot operations.
Why this matches: You would have nailed statement 1 by directly recognizing that fifth-generation stealth features focus specifically on minimizing radar cross-section.
In the context of electromagnetic radiation and its practical applications, which of the following statements regarding radio waves is correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reminded you of radio wave properties, helping you evaluate the frequency-dependent detection mentioned in statement 2.
With reference to Microwave Remote Sensing technology, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Why this matches: You would have understood active microwave sensors like RADAR, giving you the edge to analyze stealth object visibility in the source.
Orange is the New Black ✈️
MEDIUMWhich of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct? 1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection. 2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data. 3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Core aviation safety concepts across multiple exams highlight the transition from light-based signals to underwater acoustic pulses.
Which of the following statements about electromagnetic waves, sound waves and water waves is/are correct ? 1. They exhibit reflection 2. They carry energy 3. They exert pressure 4. They can travel in vacuum Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you realize light waves cannot travel through opaque water, helping you doubt statement 1's red light pulses.
Which of the following statements about 'C-Bot' is/are correct ? 1. It's an underwater vehicle to monitor coral reefs 2. It has been developed by CSIR and NIO Select the answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: You would have gained familiarity with underwater detection hardware, assisting your understanding of the technical challenges faced by beacons in deep sea.
With reference to "FWD 200B", which of the following statements is/are correct ?1. This is India's first indigenous bomber "UAV" aircraft.2. Its payload capacity is 100 kgs.Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Why this matches: You would have developed an intuition for modern aircraft payloads and defense tech, helping you validate the technical recording statements 2 and 3.
No close TS match.
Split Decisions 💧
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct ? 1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS). 2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy. 3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030. Select the answer using the code given below :
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with 2023 PYQ and precise targets from our Test Series on the National Green Hydrogen Mission.
With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements : 1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. 2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. 3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct?
Why this matches: You would have cemented your understanding of Green Hydrogen's applications, providing the conceptual foundation needed to verify statement 2.
With reference to 'fuel cells' in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements : 1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products. 2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. 3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have clarified the basics of hydrogen-oxygen reactions, helping you recognize the electrolysis logic in statement 2.
With reference to the different 'colors' of Hydrogen based on their production methods, consider the following statements: 1. Grey Hydrogen is primarily extracted from natural gas, usually methane, through a process called steam methane reforming (SMR). 2. Blue Hydrogen is characterized by the use of carbon capture and storage (CCS) technologies during its production from fossil fuels. 3. Green Hydrogen is produced through the electrolysis of water using electricity generated exclusively from renewable energy sources like solar or wind. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly ruled out statement 1 by identifying CCS-based production as Blue Hydrogen rather than Green.
With reference to Hydrogen as a fuel, consider the following statements: 1. Green hydrogen is produced through the electrolysis of water using electricity derived from renewable energy sources. 2. Fuel cells generate electricity and heat by initiating the combustion of hydrogen in a controlled chamber. 3. Hydrogen is a versatile fuel that can be utilized in both internal combustion engines and fuel cell electric vehicles. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you lock in statement 2 as a textbook definition of electrolysis-driven renewable hydrogen production.
With reference to the National Green Hydrogen Mission, consider the following statements: 1. The mission targets a production capacity of at least 5 million metric tonnes (MMT) of Green Hydrogen per annum by 2030. 2. It envisages an associated renewable energy capacity addition of about 50 GW to support hydrogen production. 3. The mission aims to replace fossil fuel-based hydrogen specifically in the production of ammonia. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: You would have nailed statement 3 by recalling the specific 2030 targets and production capacities outlined in this mission-focused question.
Renewable Spectrum 🌈
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct? 1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS). 2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy. 3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Combines a repeat of the hydrogen color-coding concept from 2023 with specific 2030 mission targets from current affairs.
With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements : 1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. 2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. 3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct?
Why this matches: You would have solidified your understanding of Green Hydrogen's versatility, helping you confidently validate the production logic in statement 2.
With reference to 'fuel cells' in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements : 1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products. 2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. 3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with hydrogen's role in fuel cells, providing a foundational baseline for statement 2.
With reference to the different 'colors' of Hydrogen based on their production methods, consider the following statements: 1. Grey Hydrogen is primarily extracted from natural gas, usually methane, through a process called steam methane reforming (SMR). 2. Blue Hydrogen is characterized by the use of carbon capture and storage (CCS) technologies during its production from fossil fuels. 3. Green Hydrogen is produced through the electrolysis of water using electricity generated exclusively from renewable energy sources like solar or wind. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized that Statement 1 describes Blue Hydrogen, allowing you to eliminate options A and D immediately.
With reference to the different 'colors' of hydrogen based on their production methods, consider the following statements: 1. Pink hydrogen is characterized by the use of nuclear energy to power the electrolysis of water. 2. Grey hydrogen is considered a low-carbon fuel as it is produced exclusively through renewable energy sources. 3. Blue hydrogen involves the production of hydrogen from fossil fuels but incorporates carbon capture and storage (CCS) to mitigate greenhouse gas emissions. Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to Hydrogen as a fuel, consider the following statements: 1. Green hydrogen is produced through the electrolysis of water using electricity derived from renewable energy sources. 2. Fuel cells generate electricity and heat by initiating the combustion of hydrogen in a controlled chamber. 3. Hydrogen is a versatile fuel that can be utilized in both internal combustion engines and fuel cell electric vehicles. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed that Green Hydrogen requires electrolysis via renewable energy, locking in Statement 2 as correct.
Swarm Intelligence 🐝
MEDIUMWhich of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Strong overlap with contemporary UPSC themes on counter-drone technology and autonomous systems seen in recent CDS and IAS cycles.
Consider the following statements : The Government is promoting the 'Kisan Drone' for 1. Spraying weedicides. 2. Digitisation of land records. 3. Crop assessment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with the expanding roles of Unmanned Aerial Vehicles, making the swarm concept's utility more intuitive.
With reference to Visible Light Communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct ? 1. VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780 nm. 2. VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication. 3. VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth. 4. VLC has no electromagnetic interference. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: You would have narrowed down Statement 1 by recalling that specific electromagnetic bands have inherent range and atmospheric limitations.
Consider the following statements: 1. Light of longer wavelength is scattered much more than the light of shorter wavelength. 2. The speed of visible light in water is 0.95 times and speed in vacuum. 3. Radio waves are produced by rapidly oscillating electrical currents. 4. To detect the over speeding vehicles, police use the Doppler effect of reflected short radio waves Which of these statements are correct ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you understand radio wave generation, aiding your assessment of command centre communication links in Statement 1.
With reference to Autonomous Systems and emerging technological frameworks, consider the following statements: 1. The ASIA (Autonomous Systems and Intelligent Assets) partnership focuses on the co-development and co-production of maritime drones and counter-drone systems among major technology countries. 2. Industry 4.0 utilizes the integration of advanced robotics and cyber-physical systems to enable machines to make autonomous decisions based on real-time data. 3. The primary role of ASIA is to serve as a global regulatory consortium for setting safety and interoperability standards for civilian autonomous vehicles. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly spotted the focus on counter-drone systems, making the inclusion of GPS spoofing in Statement 3 highly plausible.
Consider the following statements regarding the application and development of Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) in India: 1. The Drishti 10 Starliner is an advanced Medium Altitude Long Endurance (MALE) unmanned aerial vehicle inducted into the Indian Navy. 2. Drones integrated with Artificial Intelligence (AI) are limited to crop monitoring and cannot effectively detect specific biological threats like pests or diseases. 3. UAVs provide a significant advantage in precision agriculture by covering larger territorial expanses more efficiently than traditional manual labor. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have locked in the advanced capabilities of AI-integrated UAVs, directly supporting the feasibility of inter-drone communication in Statement 2.
Indian Gene Genius 🧬
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct? 1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project. 2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India. 3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Strong overlap on the project's core objectives and target of 10,000 sequenced genomes for Indian genetic diversity.
No close PYQ match in our corpus.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings and implications of the Human Genome Project (HGP): 1. The project determined that approximately 20% of the human genome is dedicated to protein-coding sequences. 2. The HGP revealed that the genetic sequence of any two individual humans is roughly 99.9% identical. 3. Mitochondrial DNA analysis, a tool enriched by genomic mapping, is primarily used to study prehistoric human dispersals and ancestry. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have ruled out Statement 1 by recognizing the Human Genome Project as a distinct global historical initiative.
With reference to the Genome India Project, consider the following statements: 1. It aims to develop personalized medicine and healthcare strategies tailored to the unique genetic diversity of the Indian population. 2. The project leverages the fact that the genetic history of Indians has shown significant discontinuity over the last several millennia. 3. It facilitates the early detection of genetic susceptibility to various diseases by mapping the Indian reference genome. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have locked in Statement 3 by identifying personalized medicine and genetic diversity as the project's core pillars.
With reference to the 'Genome India Project' (GIP), consider the following statements: 1. The first phase of the project successfully completed the baseline mapping and sequencing of 10,000 Indian genomes. 2. The second phase of the initiative is designed to include genetic data specifically from individuals with certain diseases to improve clinical outcomes. 3. To encourage pharmaceutical innovation, the project provides unrestricted and free access to the genomic database for commercial private entities.
Why this matches: You would have nailed Statements 2 and 3 after confirming the project's specific 10,000-genome mapping target for Indian populations.
Quantum Leap ⚛️
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct? 1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50 - 1000 physical qubits. 2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India. Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with specific technical objectives and qubit targets defined in our Test Series.
No close PYQ match in our corpus.
With reference to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) launched by the Government of India, which of the following best describes its primary objectives regarding communication and timing infrastructure?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with the NQM's broad scope, helping you recognize the mission's legitimacy in Statement 2.
Consider the following strategic objectives and identify which mission they are collectively associated with: 1. Development of intermediate scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits. 2. Establishment of secure quantum communications via satellite-based links between ground stations. 3. Design and synthesis of novel quantum materials for high-sensitivity magnetometers and atomic clocks.
Why this matches: You would have directly recognized the 50-1000 physical qubit target in Statement 1, instantly locking in the correct answer.
Samudrayaan’s Deep Dive 🌊
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Test Series 1 and 2 directly mirrored the relationship between Matsya-6000 and the Deep Ocean Mission.
Which of the following statements with regard to the western coastal plain of India are correct ? 1. It is a narrow belt. 2. It is an example of submerged coastal plain. 3. It provides natural conditions for development of ports. 4. It has well developed deltas. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Why this matches: You would have contextually ruled out coastal geography topics, narrowing your focus to deep-sea technological initiatives instead.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Matsya 6000' and the 'Samudrayaan' project: 1. Matsya 6000 is a deep-sea submersible designed for exploration and research of ocean resources. 2. The Samudrayaan project is an initiative primarily aimed at enhancing fish production and aquaculture in coastal regions. 3. The project is part of India's Deep Ocean Mission to explore marine life and non-living resources at great depths. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have locked in Statement 2 and 3 by recognizing Matsya-6000 as a deep-sea exploration vehicle from our similar exercise.
With reference to India's deep-sea exploration initiatives and the 'MATSYA 6000' submersible, consider the following statements: 1. MATSYA 6000 is an indigenously developed manned submersible designed to facilitate exploration at depths of up to 6,000 meters. 2. The submersible is a primary component of India's Deep Ocean Mission, aimed at exploring polymetallic nodules and deep-sea biodiversity. 3. The vehicle is specifically designed to explore deep-sea plains, which are typically found at depths ranging from 2,000 to 6,000 meters and cover nearly 50% of the ocean floor.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you instantly confirm the 6,000-meter design depth and its role in the Deep Ocean Mission.
Vigilance Vanguard 🛡️
MEDIUMMr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare. Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions?
Pattern Tests core principles of governance through a situational ethics case study, mirroring existing themes in public service frameworks.
Which one of the following platforms marks a transformative step in India's immunization efforts by digitizing vaccination records for pregnant women and children up to 16 years ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with India's vaccination infrastructure, providing the situational context for the official's administrative oversight role.
With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements : 1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it. 2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. 3. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have understood the interplay between private and public health service delivery, helping you recognize the administrator's duty to supervise.
With reference to the 'Sevottam' framework for quality management in public services, consider the following statements: 1. It is a comprehensive model designed to enhance the efficiency of private sector service delivery mechanisms. 2. The framework is built upon three pillars: the Citizen's Charter, a structured Grievance Redressal Mechanism, and Service Delivery Capability. 3. It emphasizes the importance of citizen engagement to ensure accountability in the service delivery process. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have ingrained the 'Sevottam' pillar of grievance and oversight, helping you lock in Option C through service-quality accountability.
Peace of the Pie 🤝
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following statements with reference to the above: 1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives. 2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group. 3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions. 4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making. Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?
Pattern Core conflict resolution logic and EIA processes tested across decade-old PYQs and contemporary governance mocks.
Consider the following passage : Dialogue is one of the most important tools of conflict resolution. It implies a sense of creating meaning through talking or reasoning together. The idea behind a dialogue is to bring together diverse groups of actors with differences in personal experiences, perceptions, and at times, a history of violent conflict between them. The aim of dialogical conflict resolution mechanisms is to create conditions for coordinated action towards a common goal : the end of violence and the emergence of an inclusive and peaceful society. From the above passage* what would you consider the best option for a successful dialogue between two conflicting actors ?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized dialogue as a trust-building tool, validating statements 1 and 3 while eliminating the aggressive statement 2.
Statement I : In India tribal movements of nineteenth century resulted out of the process of land displacements and the introduction of forest laws. Statement II : The Indian national movement resolved the problems faced by the tribals.
Why this matches: You would have contextualized the historical sensitivity of tribal land displacements, making the empathetic approach in statement 1 obviously correct.
Statement I : In India, tribal movements of 19th century resulted out of the process of land displacements and the introduction of forest laws. Statement I : The Indian freedom movement resolved the problems faced by the tribals.
With reference to the 'Nari Adalat' initiative, consider the following statements: 1. It serves as a village-level alternative dispute resolution forum specifically dedicated to addressing women's issues. 2. The members of the forum, known as Nyaya Sakhis, are exclusively appointed by the Ministry of Law and Justice to ensure statutory legal status. 3. The establishment of these forums aligns with the Law Commission's recommendations for enhancing local alternative dispute resolution mechanisms. Which of the above is/are correct?
With reference to the PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation) platform, consider the following statements: 1. It is a multi-purpose and multi-modal platform that integrates digital data, video conferencing, and geospatial technology to monitor government projects. 2. The platform is primarily designed to provide direct financial assistance and subsidies to farmers through a digital marketplace. 3. It serves as a tool for the Prime Minister to interact directly with Union Government Secretaries and State Chief Secretaries to address grievances and monitor project progress. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced the value of multi-modal dialogue platforms for governance, directly supporting the logic for statement 3.
Consider the following statements regarding tribal development initiatives in India: 1. The Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan (PM-JUGA) is designed to achieve comprehensive development by addressing critical gaps in infrastructure, healthcare, and education for tribal communities. 2. The Tribal Development Agency Projects were originally launched during the Fourth Five-Year Plan (1971-72) to foster development through local governance in tribal areas. 3. A primary objective of current tribal welfare schemes is to focus exclusively on the development of modern infrastructure in border tribal villages to enhance national security.
Whistle While You Work 🤫
MEDIUMWhat amongst the following should Ms. X do now? 1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public 2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity 3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Overlap with 2nd ARC recommendations and the 2014 Whistleblowers Act framework on procedural integrity and confidential disclosure.
Which one of the following Committees/Commissions has given the recommendation on removing corruption in public offices ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced the role of specialized committees in handling administrative corruption, making Statement 3 a logical procedural choice.
The Committee to recommend the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner consists of whom of the following?1. Prime Minister of India2. Chief Justice of India3. Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha4. A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister5. Cabinet SecretarySelect the answer using the code given below:
Why this matches: You would have recognized that high-level appointments and oversight rely on committee-based deliberations rather than unilateral public disclosures.
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The abolition of the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was recommended by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission 2. The Right to Information Act was enacted in 2005 Select the answer using the code given below:
Why this matches: Practicing this would have highlighted the 2nd ARC's focus on institutional reforms, helping you favor internal oversight over public disclosure.
With reference to the 'Swiss Challenge Method' of public procurement in the infrastructure sector, consider the following statements: 1. A private sector entity can submit an unsolicited proposal for an infrastructure project without a formal government invitation. 2. The original proponent of the project is granted the 'Right of First Refusal', allowing them to match any superior bids received from third parties. 3. The Vijay Kelkar Committee on Revisiting and Revitalizing the PPP model strongly recommended the adoption of this method for all future central infrastructure projects. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have understood the formal nature of government procurement, suggesting that removing a contractor (2) requires formal inquiry, not impulse.
With reference to the Whistleblowers Protection Act, 2014, consider the following statements: 1. The Act provides a statutory framework to protect individuals who disclose information regarding corruption or willful misuse of power by public servants. 2. The Act explicitly mandates a monetary reward system for whistleblowers whose disclosures lead to the successful recovery of misappropriated public funds. 3. The Act contains specific provisions to safeguard the identity of the complainant to prevent potential victimization or retaliation. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have locked in Statement 3 by recognizing that statutory whistleblowing mandates internal disclosure through specific 'proper channels' for protection.
Law and Order ⚖️
HIGH OVERLAP'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, very and even rules and regulations, orders out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:
Pattern Tests the comprehensive scope of 'Law' under Article 13, mirroring our Test Series focus on statutory vs. non-statutory sources.
Which one of the following is the correct meaning of the term ‘State’, as defined in Article 12 of the Constitution of India ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have solidified your understanding of Part III definitions, narrowing the conceptual scope to Article 12 and 13.
With reference to the definitions of 'State' and 'Law' under Part III of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized that Article 13 covers both permanent and temporary laws, locking in Option D by validating Y's view.
In the context of the Indian polity, consider the following statements regarding the grounds on which the constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in the higher judiciary: 1. A law can be challenged if it infringes upon the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution. 2. The High Courts and the Supreme Court can strike down a law if it is found to be in contradiction with any provision of the Constitution. 3. The scope of judicial review in India is broader than that of the United States because the concept is explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you recognize that executive orders are 'law', assisting in evaluating X's partially correct interpretation.
With reference to the mechanism of Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India explicitly defines and mentions the term 'Judicial Review' in Article 13. 2. Both the Supreme Court and the High Courts possess the authority to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders. 3. The historical evolution of judicial review in India is significantly influenced by the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: You would have mastered the constitutional basis of Article 13, helping you verify the validity of the legal definitions provided by Y.
Constitutional Closing Act 📜
MEDIUMConsider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India: 1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'. 2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed. 3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
Pattern Tests final provisions of Part XXII including short title, commencement, and repeals—concepts traditionally understudied but present in our corpus.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts. 2. There are 390 articles in the Constitution of India in all. 3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts. Which of the statements is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have recalled the precise number of original Articles, leading you to investigate the final provisions of the Constitution's structure.
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements : 1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States. 2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your knowledge of the 1935 Act, helping you verify its status during the transition to 1950.
With reference to the constitutional transition in India during the mid-20th century, consider the following statements: 1. The Indian Independence Act of 1947 provided a comprehensive permanent Constitution for the newly formed Dominions of India and Pakistan. 2. Until the adoption of the Constitution of India in 1950, the governance of the country was primarily conducted within the framework of the Government of India Act of 1935. 3. The Indian Independence Act of 1947 was the legislative implementation of the Mountbatten Plan, facilitating the partition and the end of British suzerainty.
Why this matches: You would have mastered the constitutional transition timeline, allowing you to instantly debunk statements 2 and 3 regarding the 1947 Act.
Consider the following statements regarding the structural and historical evolution of the Constitution of India: 1. The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution in the world, a characteristic attributed to factors like geographical diversity and historical influences. 2. At its inception, the Constitution was a concise document containing a Preamble, 300 Articles, and 8 Schedules. 3. The historical influence of the Government of India Act of 1919, which was itself an extensive document, contributed significantly to the bulk of the modern Indian Constitution. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have solidified your understanding of the Constitution's inception, helping you rule out the claim in statement 3.
Sugamya Bharat: Accessibility ♿
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct? 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination. 2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology. 3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs). Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with CDS 2024 and IAS 2011 on the Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan and institutional frameworks for PwDs.
Consider the following statements: 1. 'SAMARTH 2014', a national festival for showcasing the abilities of persons with disabilities, was organized recently in New Delhi by the Ministry of Culture. 2. India is a party to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have recognized India's commitment to international disability rights, providing the broad legal context for the RPwD Act's domestic provisions.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan: 1. This programme is initiated by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. 2. It aims to develop an inclusive society for persons with disabilities. 3. It has provisions of pension for persons with disabilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you instantly confirm Statement 2's focus on universal accessibility and inclusive infrastructure for persons with disabilities.
India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under the law ? 1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools. 2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business. 3. Ramps in public buildings. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Why this matches: You would have easily connected the legal mandate for ramps and business land to Statement 2's transport and infrastructure pillars.
With reference to the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Rules, 2017, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you spot the 2016 enactment date for the RPwD Act, instantly ruling out Statement 1's 2018 claim.
With reference to the constitutional and institutional framework for inclusivity in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Purple Festival is an initiative organized by the Government of India to foster inclusivity and equality for persons with disabilities. 2. Article 325 of the Constitution of India ensures that no citizen is excluded from the electoral rolls based on religion, race, caste, or sex. 3. The Directive Principles of State Policy specifically exclude persons with disabilities from the guarantee of equal pay for equal work. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have narrowed down the institutional framework for PwDs, keeping you focused on the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment's domain.
Scheduled Strike! 🗳️
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India: 1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes. 3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
Pattern Direct overlap with PYQs and test series on Sixth Schedule geography and Panchayat reservation mandates.
The provisions of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India shall not apply to the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in 1) Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha 2) Assam and Tripura 3) Meghalaya and Mizoram Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you instantly eliminate Statement 1 by confirming that Assam and Tripura belong to the Sixth Schedule.
Consider the following statements : 1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe. 2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have gained critical context on the legal differentiation of Scheduled Tribes across state boundaries, aiding your conceptual understanding.
Which of the following are constitutional provisions and laws for the protection of the rights of the Scheduled Castes in India? 1. Article 17 of the Constitution of India 2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 3. The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your knowledge of constitutional protections for SCs, helping you validate the legal basis for Statement 3.
With reference to the administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. The Governor of a state has the power to make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled Tribes in such areas. 2. The President of India is constitutionally required to appoint a commission to report on the administration of the Scheduled Areas and the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes. 3. The Governor must submit a report to the President regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas only when specifically requested by the Union Home Ministry.
Why this matches: You would have mastered the nuances of Fifth Schedule administration, making the misplacement of AMTM states in Statement 1 obvious.
Consider the following statements regarding the administration of tribal areas under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: 1. The Governor of the state is empowered to increase or decrease the area of an autonomous district or change its name through public notification. 2. The Sixth Schedule currently applies to the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Nagaland. 3. Any amendment to the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution requires a special majority in Parliament under Article 368. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have locked in the Sixth Schedule's specific geographic applicability, allowing you to quickly rule out Statement 1.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: 1. It provides for the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. 2. The provisions of the Sixth Schedule are applicable to the tribal areas under Article 244(2) of the Constitution. 3. The Governor is empowered to organize and re-organize the autonomous districts within the Sixth Schedule states. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly verified Statement 1 as false by confirming that Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram are Sixth Schedule territories.
Star-Crossed Queries ⭐
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India: 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House. 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer. 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with detailed parliamentary procedures from our Polity test series and CDS previous year questions.
Which of the following descriptions with regard to Parliamentary Privilege for Members of the Parliament of India is/are correct ? 1. The Speaker is empowered to refer suo moto any question of privilege for investigation 2. A question of privilege is accorded priority over other items in the List of Business 3. The privilege extends to freedom from preventive arrest or detention Select the answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: Practicing this would have strengthened your understanding of Parliamentary business priority, helping you categorize these procedural questions as core syllabus material.
In the context of the Indian Parliamentary proceedings, which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? 1. Starred Question: Requires an oral answer and allows for supplementary questions. 2. Unstarred Question: Requires a written answer and no supplementary questions can follow. 3. Short Notice Question: Asked by giving a notice of less than ten days and is answered orally.
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized that Starred and Unstarred definitions were swapped, locking in Statement 3 as the only correct choice.
Committee Case Closed 📂
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
Pattern Direct hit on committee composition and eligibility rules seen in past CDS exams and current test series modules.
The Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the Welfare of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs) shall 1. examine whether the Union Government has secured due representation of the SCs and the STs in the services and posts under its control 2. report on the working of the welfare programmes for the SCs and the STs in the Union Territories Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the committee's mandate, helping you focus on the technical composition errors in the source question.
Which one of the following committees does not have members from the Rajya Sabha?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recalled that this committee includes Rajya Sabha members, helping you evaluate the house-specific claims in statement 2.
Consider the following statements: 1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, Members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha. 2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs. 3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates members of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries. Which of these statements are correct?
Why this matches: You would have recognized how membership is distributed across houses, aiding in the elimination of the inverted numbers in statement 2.
With reference to the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, consider the following statements: 1. The committee is a joint parliamentary body consisting of 30 members, with representation from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. 2. A Minister is eligible for election to the committee to ensure coordination with the executive branch. 3. One of the primary functions of the committee is to consider the reports submitted by the National Commission for the Scheduled Castes and the National Commission for the Scheduled Tribes. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have spotted the minister's ineligibility (statement 3) and the 30-member joint structure, leading you to conclude D is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding specific Parliamentary Committees in India: 1. The Committee on Private Members' Bills and Resolutions is a special committee that exists only in the Lok Sabha. 2. The Committee on Government Assurances is a joint committee consisting of members from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. 3. The Committee on Absence of Members from the Sittings of the House is a committee that exists only in the Lok Sabha. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have sharpened your ability to distinguish between Lok Sabha-exclusive and joint committees like the one in Q84.
Consider the following statements regarding the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) in the Indian Parliamentary system: 1. The committee was first established in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919. 2. The committee consists of 22 members, with 10 members from the Lok Sabha and 12 from the Rajya Sabha. 3. Members are elected through the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have nailed the member-ratio trap by identifying how UPSC often flips Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha seat counts.
Shielding the Chakra 🎯
MEDIUMConsider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India: 1. It aims to enhance India’s air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities. 2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India’s strategic autonomy. 3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Pattern Tests strategic integrated air defense frameworks by evolving prior UPSC themes of missile capabilities and native defensive architectures.
Consider the following statements about Prithvi-II Missile : 1. It is a nuclear-capable ballistic missile.' 2. It has a maximum range of ’100 km. 3. It is India's first native made ballistic5 missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have sharpened your focus on indigenous ballistic missile capabilities, making Statement 1 regarding BMD offensive capabilities much easier.
Consider the following statements 1. The DRDO developed two variants of Prithvi Missile. 2. Prithvi II is equipped with features of maneuverability to deceive the enemy defence system. 3. Induction of Prithvi Missile enhances the capability of the Indian Army to attack multiple targets simultaneously. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have recognized the evolution of multi-target defense capabilities, helping you validate the ambitious multi-layered architecture in Statement 1.
With reference to Indian defence, which one of the following statements is not correct?
Why this matches: You would have recalled historical surface-to-air defense contexts, allowing you to quickly accept the modern expansion described in Statement 2.
With reference to the Rudram-1 missile, consider the following statements: 1. It is India's first indigenously developed anti-radiation missile designed to neutralize enemy surveillance and communication radars. 2. The missile is integrated with a passive homing head that can detect and track targets even if the enemy radar is shut down during the flight. 3. It is a long-range strategic weapon with an operational strike capability exceeding 1000 kilometres. Which of the above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements regarding India's defense cooperation with the West Asian (Gulf) nations: 1. The bilateral exercise 'Eastern Bridge-7' is a joint air force engagement conducted between India and the Sultanate of Oman. 2. The joint military exercise 'SADA TANSEEQ' is a collaborative defense initiative between the Indian Army and the Royal Saudi Land Forces. 3. The Gulf monarchies, particularly the UAE, have shown decreasing support for India's defense initiatives against terrorism in recent years. Which of the above is/are correct?
With reference to the Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS) recently developed in India, consider the following statements: 1. It is a fourth-generation, indigenously developed Man-Portable Air Defence System (MANPADS). 2. The system is specifically designed to neutralize high-altitude ballistic missiles and strategic bombers. 3. It is primarily intended for deployment by ground forces to counter low-altitude aerial threats like drones and enemy aircraft.
Why this matches: You would have nailed the distinction between local VSHORADS and nationwide ballistic missile defense, locking in Statement 1 and Statement 2.
Bridge the Gap 🌉
MEDIUMConsider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Pattern Tests spatial accuracy of neighborhood infrastructure projects, mirroring previous UPSC trends of mapping border state connectivity.
Consider the following statements: I. Assam shares a border with Bhutan and Bangladesh II. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan and Nepal III. Mizoram shares a border with Bangladesh and Myanmar Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have sharpened your border geography, helping you verify Mechi bridge's location via West Bengal's shared boundary with Nepal.
Consider the following statements regarding India's connectivity and strategic initiatives in its extended neighborhood: 1. India has extended a US$ 100 million line of credit for a project linking the capital of Maldives with the islands of Villingli, Gulhifalhu, and Thilafushi. 2. The 'Connect Central Asia' Policy, which emphasizes political, security, and economic ties, was formally launched by India in 2015. 3. Both India and the Maldives are active members of the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC). Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: You would have gained the necessary mindset for scrutinizing neighborhood connectivity projects, helping you analyze the bilateral links in statements 1-3.
Consider the following statements regarding strategic infrastructure in India's border regions: 1. The Sela Tunnel is a strategically significant project designed to provide all-weather connectivity between Tezpur and Tawang. 2. The Atal Tunnel, the longest highway tunnel in the world, ensures year-round connectivity between Manali and Leh. 3. The Bomdi La Pass serves as a vital link connecting the state of Arunachal Pradesh with Lhasa, the capital of Tibet.
Why this matches: You would have honed your ability to spot swapped geographical locations in border infrastructure, a skill vital for debunking Statement 1.
Zero to Hero Juris-Diction ⚖️
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Extensive coverage of Zero FIR fundamentals and the transition from IPC to the new BNSS legal framework.
Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. First Law Commission recommended Indian Penal Code, 1860. 2. Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been completely replaced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. Select the answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the complete replacement of IPC by BNSS, helping you confidently apply new procedural rules to FIRs.
With reference to the legal framework of 'Zero FIR' in India, consider the following statements: 1. A Zero FIR can be registered at any police station across the country, irrespective of where the alleged crime took place. 2. The primary purpose of a Zero FIR is to facilitate immediate reporting of crimes, after which it is transferred to the jurisdictional police station. 3. A Zero FIR is a specific type of complaint filed only against unidentified persons when the perpetrator's identity is unknown. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized the 'any police station' rule for Zero FIRs, while narrowing down the cognizable offense requirement.
With reference to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) and the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), consider the following statements: 1. Community service has been introduced as a new form of punishment for certain minor offenses under the BNS. 2. The BNS has specifically codified terrorism and organized crime as distinct offenses, which were not explicitly defined in the Indian Penal Code, 1860. 3. Under the BNSS, a criminal court is mandated to deliver its judgment within a maximum period of 30 days after the conclusion of the trial. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with the BNSS structural changes, providing the necessary context to evaluate the new preliminary enquiry rules.
With reference to the First Information Report (FIR) in the Indian criminal justice system, consider the following statements: 1. The police are legally mandated to register an FIR upon receiving information regarding the commission of a cognizable offence. 2. A valid FIR can only be lodged by the victim or a direct relative of the victim of the crime. 3. The formal process of investigation by the police commences only after the FIR has been duly recorded. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced that FIRs are mandatory only for cognizable offences, helping you rule out non-cognizable crimes in Statement 1.
Match Point 📊
HIGH OVERLAPWith reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?
Pattern Structural clone of the 'How many pairs' grid format used in recent 2024-2025 UPSC Prelims papers.
With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information: Organization Function/Act Ministry/Department I. Directorate of Enforcement Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
Why this matches: You would have expertly handled the complex 'Only one' to 'None' format by evaluating organization-ministry linkages under high-pressure scenarios.
With reference to India, consider the following pairs : I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have trained you to spot 'None' as a viable answer when every row contains a mismatch or error.
With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements : 1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18. 2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Why this matches: You would have gained critical historical context on central ministries, helping you verify general organizational counts across various central bodies.
Consider the following pairs regarding the ex-officio chairpersons of various statutory and constitutional bodies in India: 1. National Disaster Management Authority: Union Home Minister 2. State Disaster Management Authority: Chief Minister of the State 3. NITI Aayog: Prime Minister of India How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have sharpened your ability to cross-verify ex-officio heads against their respective statutory bodies in the three-pair format.
Consider the following pairs of Indian institutions and their primary regulatory or constitutional mandates: 1. IRDAI: Statutory body regulating insurance and reinsurance sectors. 2. Finance Commission: Constitutional body established every three years for tax revenue distribution. 3. RBI: Statutory body regulating both banking and non-banking financial institutions. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Why this matches: You would have mastered identifying constitutional versus statutory mandates, a recurring theme for successfully cracking these multi-row matching questions.
Consider the following pairs of Departments and their respective Ministries: 1. Department of Border Management : Ministry of Home Affairs 2. Department of Land Resources : Ministry of Rural Development 3. Department of Bio-Technology : Ministry of Science and Technology How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Why this matches: You would have nailed the Ministry-Department alignment logic, allowing you to confidently evaluate row-based accuracy in the source question.
Treaty Ratification Race 🏁
MEDIUMWhich of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India ? Employment Policy Convention Abolition of Forced Labour Convention International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War Convention on Reduction of Statelessness Select the answer using the code given below :
Pattern Tests ratification status of international labor and human rights conventions, focusing on India's specific legal commitments.
Which one of the following international Human Rights Instruments has been signed by India but not yet ratified ?
Why this matches: You would have sharpened your awareness of India's selective ratification of international human rights instruments, narrowing down the potential non-ratified candidates.
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India ?1. Abolition of untouchability2. Prohibition of human trafficking and forced labour3. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines4. Protection of interests of minoritiesSelect the correct answer from the codes given below :
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed India’s constitutional commitment against forced labor, making the ratification of ILO Convention 105 more predictable.
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India ? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Abolition of untouchability 3. Protection of the interests of minorities 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: You would have solidified your understanding of the 'Right against Exploitation', helping you deduce India's likely ratification of labor-related conventions.
With reference to the legal and institutional framework for refugees in India, consider the following statements: 1. India is a signatory to the 1951 Refugee Convention but has not yet ratified its 1967 Protocol. 2. In the absence of a specific national refugee law, undocumented migrants like the Rohingya are generally processed under the Foreigners Act, 1946. 3. The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), 2019, provides a pathway to citizenship for all persecuted minorities from neighboring countries who entered India before December 31, 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have spotted India's hesitation toward refugee-related protocols, helping you logically group the Statelessness Convention (5) as not ratified.
With reference to the implementation of international treaties in India, consider the following statements: 1. International treaties are negotiated and signed on behalf of the Prime Minister, but they require parliamentary approval to be effective in India. 2. The Parliament can enact laws for the whole or any part of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country. 3. To implement an international treaty, the Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State List without the consent of the states. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have taught you the procedural side of treaty implementation, providing the necessary context for ratification logic.
Consider the following statements regarding the availability of Fundamental Rights to non-citizens (foreigners) in India: 1. The protection against discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth is available to both citizens and foreigners. 2. The right to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment is restricted exclusively to the citizens of India. 3. The six democratic freedoms, including the right to freedom of speech and expression and the right to form associations, are not guaranteed to foreigners.
Why this matches: You would have reviewed rights for non-citizens, providing a thematic link to why India might not ratify certain migrant-worker conventions.
Signing vs Ratifying ✍️
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India? Employment Policy Convention Abolition of Forced Labour Convention International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War Convention on Reduction of Statelessness Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Tests specific UN/ILO human rights instruments India has avoided, mirroring a common UPSC theme on non-ratified treaties.
Which one among the following treaties of human rights was signed but not yet ratified by India?
Why this matches: You would have mastered the 'signed but not ratified' logic for UN human rights treaties, making Statement 3 an easy target.
Which one of the following international Human Rights Instruments has been signed by India but not yet ratified ?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have sharpened your ability to differentiate between ratified child rights and unratified nationality or migrant-specific conventions.
Which one among the following provisions of the Constitution of India prohibits forced labour such as traffic in human beings, Begar and such other similar forms of labour, but does not prevent the State from imposing compulsory service for public purposes without discrimination?
Why this matches: You would have solidified your knowledge of Article 23, helping you realize India's constitutional alignment with ratified ILO Statement 2.
With reference to the legal and institutional framework for refugees in India, consider the following statements: 1. India is a signatory to the 1951 Refugee Convention but has not yet ratified its 1967 Protocol. 2. In the absence of a specific national refugee law, undocumented migrants like the Rohingya are generally processed under the Foreigners Act, 1946. 3. The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), 2019, provides a pathway to citizenship for all persecuted minorities from neighboring countries who entered India before December 31, 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have taught you India's stance on statelessness and refugee frameworks, helping you lock in Statement 5.
With reference to the implementation of international treaties in India, consider the following statements: 1. International treaties are negotiated and signed on behalf of the Prime Minister, but they require parliamentary approval to be effective in India. 2. The Parliament can enact laws for the whole or any part of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country. 3. To implement an international treaty, the Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State List without the consent of the states. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have understood how international treaties require domestic enactment, providing broader context for India's hesitation on certain conventions.
With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) as enshrined in the Constitution of India, consider the following statements regarding the promotion of international peace and security: 1. The State shall strive to maintain just and honorable relations between nations. 2. The Constitution mandates the encouragement of settlement of international disputes by arbitration. 3. The State is required to utilize United Nations Peacekeeping Forces for the resolution of all international border disputes. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have recognized India's constitutional mandate for international peace, though it wouldn't directly identify the specific unratified treaties.
Look East, Link East 🌏
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries? 1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project 2. IMT Trilateral Highway 3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with the 2023 Trilateral Highway question and specific test series focus on Kaladan's Myanmar-ASEAN link.
With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements : 1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. 2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. 3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China. How many of the above statements are correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly spotted the Trilateral Highway and its Myanmar-Thailand route, verifying statement 2 and narrowing the source options down.
India, in June 2018, asserted that any mega connectivity project must respect sovereignty and territorial integrity of the countries. The project referred to above is
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your knowledge of mega-connectivity projects, providing broader regional context for evaluating ASEAN infrastructure initiatives.
Mekong-Ganga Cooperation Project is
Why this matches: You would have locked in the specific member nations of the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, helping you distinguish ASEAN partners from SAARC neighbors.
The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is strategically significant for India primarily because it:
Why this matches: You would have nailed statement 1 by recognizing Kaladan as a Myanmar-centric project, confirming its ASEAN status while ruling out Agartala-Akhaura.
Neighborhood Watch 🤝
LOWMatch List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Project Supported by India) List II (Country) A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project 1. Maldives B. Restoration of Stor Palace 2. Afghanistan C. District Hospital at Dickoya 3. Bhutan D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies 4. Sri Lanka
Pattern Tests India's soft-power diplomacy and bilateral development projects across South Asian and neighboring nations.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Bilateral Exercise) A. Garuda Shakti B. Nomadic Elephant C. Mitra Shakti D. Dharma Guardian List II (Participating Country) 1. India and Japan 2. India and Sri Lanka 3. India and Mongolia 4. India and Indonesia Code : (a) A=4, B=2, C=3, D=1 (b) A=4, B=3, C=2, D=1 (c) A=1, B=3, C=2, D=4 (d) A=1, B=2, C=3, D=4
Why this matches: You would have recognized the pattern of Indo-Sri Lankan bilateral cooperation (C-4), helping you narrow down regional diplomatic ties.
No close TS match.
Homegrown Hardware 🛠️
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India? 1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets 2. T-90 MK-III Tanks 3. Akula Class Submarine Select the answer using the code given below:
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with PYQs concerning HAL manufacturing and the 'Make in India' defense indigenization lists.
With reference to Indian defence, which one of the following statements is not correct?
Why this matches: You would have confirmed Sukhoi-30 MKI's operational role in the IAF, helping you confidently retain statement 1.
Which one of the following statements about Sukhoi-30MKI fighter aircraft is not correct ?
Why this matches: You would have instantly locked in statement 1 by recognizing that HAL manufactures the Sukhoi-30MKI in Nasik.
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited handed over the first two indigenously designed and manufactured light combat aircrafts to the Indian Air Force in 2016, What is the name of these new combat aircrafts?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced HAL's role in indigenous manufacturing, narrowing down the likely manufacturers for items 1 and 2.
With reference to the LCA Tejas Mark 1A, a cornerstone of India's indigenous defense modernization, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Why this matches: You would have practiced the 'Make in India' framework, providing the logical basis to evaluate statement 2's domestic manufacturing claim.
With reference to the 'Positive Indigenisation List' and the 'Make in India' initiative, consider the following statements: 1. The Positive Indigenisation List is a strategic policy tool specifically designed to promote domestic manufacturing within the defense sector. 2. The primary objective of the list is to enhance local content in renewable energy equipment and pharmaceutical research to reduce import dependency. 3. Aerospace and Defence have been identified as 'Champion Sectors' under the Make in India initiative to align with indigenisation goals. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with the 'Positive Indigenisation List,' making statement 2 on local tank production highly plausible.
With reference to the 'Make in India' initiative, consider the following statements: 1. The initiative was launched on September 25, 2014, to facilitate investment and foster innovation. 2. It is structured around four key pillars: New Processes, New Infrastructure, New Sectors, and New Mindset. 3. A primary objective in the defence sector is to increase reliance on foreign original equipment manufacturers (OEMs) to ensure high-tech procurement. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have understood the 'Make in India' pillars, helping you identify domestic manufacturing trends in the defense sector.
Migrant Labor Link-Up 🌏
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation: 1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus. 2. The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility. 3. The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Pattern Direct thematic overlap with 2023 PYQ on GCM and multiple test series questions regarding the Colombo Process's non-binding nature.
Consider the following statements : 1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the 'Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)'. 2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries. 3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments. How many of the above statements are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you recognize the UN's preference for non-binding migration frameworks, making Statement 3 highly plausible.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Colombo Process': 1. It is a regional consultative process specifically designed for Asian countries that are primary sources of overseas contractual workers. 2. The process facilitates the exchange of best practices to enhance the welfare and protection of migrant workers in their destination countries. 3. The permanent headquarters of the Colombo Process is located in Colombo, Sri Lanka, to ensure administrative continuity. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized the Colombo Process as an Asian regional consultative body, validating the core context of Statement 1.
With reference to the Colombo Process, consider the following statements: 1. It is a Regional Consultative Process focused on the management of overseas employment and contractual labor for countries of origin in South and South-East Asia. 2. India has recently assumed the chairmanship of this forum for the first time since its inception in 2003. 3. The primary objective of the process is to facilitate the permanent migration and naturalization of South Asian tourists in European nations.
Why this matches: Practicing this would have nailed the 'Regional Consultative Process' definition, helping you rule out 'binding decisions' in Statement 1.
With reference to the Colombo Process, which was recently in the news, consider the following statements: 1. India has assumed the chair of the Colombo Process for the first time since the forum's inception in 2003. 2. The membership of the Colombo Process is exclusively limited to nations located within the Asian continent. 3. The forum focuses on the management of overseas employment and the protection of migrant workers from the region. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have spotted India's chairmanship and the forum's Asian scope, narrowing down the geographical and functional attributes of these platforms.
Peace Prize Double Take ✌️
HIGH OVERLAPConsider the following UN organisations/ agencies: 1. World Food Programme 2. United Nations Children's Fund 3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees 4. International Labour Organisation How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?
Pattern Direct conceptual repetition from UPSC CDS 2024 and 2025 regarding UN agencies with multiple Nobel Peace Prizes.
Which one among the following UN agencies has received the Nobel Prize more than once ?
Why this matches: You would have instantly locked in UNHCR as the sole agency with multiple wins, making '1' the only logical answer.
Which of the following UN organisations has been awarded with Nobel Prize twice?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have helped you recall UNHCR's unique double-award status, allowing you to confidently select option A.
With reference to global humanitarian aid coordination and food security, consider the following statements: 1. The World Food Programme (WFP) holds the primary mandate for coordinating and distributing emergency food aid during humanitarian crises. 2. The World Trade Organization (WTO) collaborates with organizations like the WFP to ensure food availability and accessibility during emergencies. 3. The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) is the lead agency responsible for the global distribution of food aid in conflict zones. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have narrowed down the list by recognizing the WFP's primary mandate, though its specific Nobel count remains a distinct fact.
Consider the following statements regarding international humanitarian assistance and food security: 1. The World Food Programme (WFP) is the primary United Nations agency responsible for providing emergency food assistance during humanitarian crises. 2. The Office for the Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs (OCHA) is the lead agency for the direct physical distribution of emergency food aid globally. 3. The World Trade Organization (WTO) has committed to enhancing food availability and accessibility specifically within the context of humanitarian crises. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your familiarity with the WFP, assisting you in evaluating its inclusion among the four listed agencies.
Consider the following statements regarding the institutional framework of the United Nations and its affiliated bodies: 1. The International Labour Organisation and the World Health Organization are recognized as specialized agencies of the United Nations. 2. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) operates as a specialized agency of the United Nations to regulate international trade. 3. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) are among the specialized agencies that report to the UN through the Economic and Social Council.
Why this matches: You would have at least confirmed the ILO's status as a specialized UN agency, grounding your understanding of the question's entities.
Peacekeeping Time-Travel 🕊️
MEDIUMMatch List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists: List I(UN Peacekeeping Operation) List II(Period of Operation) A. UNMIL 1. 2007 – 2010 B. MINURCAT 2. 2002 – 2005 C. MINUSTAH 3. 2003 – 2018 D. UNMISET 4. 2004 – 2017 Code:
Pattern Overlap with UN mission structural analysis and historical peacekeeping timelines from previous match-the-column formats.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Date) A. 24th October B. 10th December C. 24th May D. 21st September List-II (Event) 1. Human Rights Day 2. Commonwealth Day 3. United Nations Day 4. Internationa] Day of Peace Codes A B C D
Why this matches: Practicing this would have sharpened your precision in matching UN-related dates and events, preparing you for the 3-1-4-2 chronological sequence.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-I (Regional block) (Headquarters) A. ASEAN 1. Brussels B. CIS 2. Vienna C. EU 3. Minsk D. OPEC 4. Jakarta
Why this matches: You would have mastered the 'Match List I with List II' logic for global organizations, helping you efficiently map UN missions.
Consider the following pairs of regions/cities and the countries they are located in: 1. Darfur : Sudan 2. Goma : Democratic Republic of the Congo 3. St. Martin's Island : Bangladesh How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Why this matches: You would have connected Darfur and Congo to UN intervention zones, narrowing down the regional contexts for MINURCAT and UNMIL.
Consider the following pairs of locations and their respective geographical contexts/regions: 1. Enga Province — Papua New Guinea 2. El-Fasher — Democratic Republic of Congo 3. Gardi Sugdub — Panama How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have forced you to associate specific conflict-prone regions with their correct geographical and political identities.
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Disengagement Observer Force (UNDOF): 1. It was established by the UN Security Council following the 1974 Agreement on Disengagement between Israeli and Syrian forces. 2. The mission's mandate is subject to periodic review and renewal by the UN General Assembly every six months. 3. Its primary operational objective is to maintain the ceasefire and supervise the areas of separation and limitation in the Golan Heights. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have directly recognized the structure of UN peacekeeping mandates and timelines, helping you lock in the start dates for UNMIL.
Bay Area Mapping 🗺️
LOWMatch List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :List IList II (Location)A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory1. NOIDAB. BIMSTEC Energy Centre2. BengaluruC. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate3. ColomboD. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility4. ThimphuCode :ABCD
Pattern Institutional deep-dive into BIMSTEC specialized agencies and their specific host cities.
No close PYQ match in our corpus.
Consider the following statements regarding the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC): 1. The organization was formally established through the adoption of the Bangkok Declaration in 1997. 2. The permanent secretariat of BIMSTEC is located in Kathmandu, Nepal. 3. The membership of the grouping is exclusively limited to countries located within the South Asian region. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have solidified your core BIMSTEC knowledge, allowing you to focus mental bandwidth on specific regional center locations.
With reference to the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC), consider the following statements: 1. The BIMSTEC Summit is the supreme organ of the grouping and possesses the power to admit new members. 2. BIMSTEC lacks a formal legal personality, which prevents it from entering into international agreements with other global organizations. 3. The organization has the autonomy to establish its own specific rules and procedures regarding membership admission.
Why this matches: You would have mastered the organizational structure of BIMSTEC, helping you recognize these specialized centers as part of its framework.
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a unique regional organization bridging South and Southeast Asia. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of this grouping?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed Bhutan and Sri Lanka as member states, validating the geographic logic behind the host city options.
Corps Blimey! 💂
MEDIUMWhich one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Indian Army Corps Headquarters (a) 3 Corps Dimapur (b) 4 Corps Tezpur (c) 14 Corps Leh (d) 33 Corps Srinagar
Pattern Familiarity with the 'not correctly matched' format for Indian defense geography across CDS and Prelims papers.
Which one of the following pairs of military training institute of India and location is not correctly matched?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have habituated you to identifying mismatched military geography, aiding your mental focus on locating the 33 Corps error.
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Why this matches: You would have mastered the 'incorrectly matched' logic for Indian command headquarters, making the 33 Corps/Srinagar discrepancy stand out instantly.
No close TS match.
PRI-ority Planning 🗳️
MEDIUMWhich of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ? 1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026. 2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals. 3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories. Select the answer using the code given below :
Pattern Focused on Panchayati Raj governance schemes and institutional capacity building for rural development objectives.
Social Mobilisation and Institution Development (SM&ID) is one of the major components of:
Why this matches: You would have instantly recognized RGSA as a rural governance scheme, helping you link Statement 2's PRI objectives to this specific mission.
Which of the following statements about the Panchayati Raj System are correct ? 1. All seats in a Panchayat are filled by persons chosen by direct election, 2. The ‘Gram Sabha’ consists of persons registered in the village electoral rolls. 3. The Chairperson of a Panchayat is elected in accordance with a law passed by each state. 4. All states in India have a three-tier system of Panchayats. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Why this matches: Practicing this would have reinforced your foundational knowledge of PRI structures, aiding your evaluation of Statement 2's governance capability focus.
With reference to the 'Jan Yojana Abhiyan' (People's Plan Campaign), consider the following statements: 1. It is a flagship initiative launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj to ensure participatory planning in rural local bodies. 2. The campaign's primary objective is to formulate comprehensive Panchayat Development Plans (PDPs) through active public involvement. 3. The scope of the campaign includes Gram Panchayats and Block Panchayats, but specifically excludes Zila Parishads to avoid jurisdictional overlap with District Planning Committees. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have spotted the Ministry of Panchayati Raj's planning initiatives, narrowing down Statement 2 as the core functional goal of RGSA.
With reference to the 'Gram Manchitra' application and the Panchayati Raj System in India, consider the following statements: 1. Gram Manchitra serves as a Geo-Spatial Based Decision Support System specifically designed to assist Panchayats in developmental planning. 2. The application was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development to integrate GIS technology with the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA). 3. The Gram Panchayat, which is the foundational tier of the three-tier Panchayati Raj System, is directly elected by the Gram Sabha. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have familiarized you with tech-based PRI governance, providing the context needed to validate the revamped RGSA’s modernizing objectives.
With reference to the Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA), consider the following statements: 1. The Gram Sabha is vested with the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas and to take appropriate action to restore any unlawfully alienated land of a Scheduled Tribe. 2. The ownership of minor forest produce is vested in the Gram Sabha, and it has the authority to regulate the sale and consumption of any intoxicant. 3. The PESA Act extends the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution to the Fourth Schedule areas of India, covering ten states. Which of the above is/are correct?
Euro-Vision 🇪🇺
HIGH OVERLAPWhich of the following countries are members of the European Union ? 1. Belarus 2. Poland 3. Germany 4. Switzerland Select the answer using the code given below :
Pattern Recursive testing of Swiss non-membership and 21st-century EU expansion across four decades of PYQs and recent test series trilateralism.
Consider the following countries : 1. Switzerland 2. Malta 3. Bulgaria Which of the above are members of European Union?
Why this matches: You would have instantly eliminated Switzerland (4) as a member, narrowing the options down to only the correct Choice C.
Which one of the following pairs of countries joined the European Union in January, 2007?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have confirmed the 2000s expansion era, helping you lock in Poland (2) as a valid member state.
Which one of the following countries had in 1994 voted against joining the European Union ?
Why this matches: You would have recognized the pattern of European nations voting against EU membership, aiding your skepticism of Swiss or Belarusian inclusion.
Consider the following statements regarding historical and contemporary geopolitical groupings in Europe: 1. The Weimar Triangle is a regional alliance consisting of France, Germany, and Poland, aimed at promoting cooperation in cross-border and European issues. 2. Following the Potsdam Conference, Germany was divided into three occupation zones governed exclusively by the USSR, Great Britain, and the United States. 3. The pre-World War I Triple Alliance was a secret agreement between Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy. Which of the above is/are correct?
Why this matches: You would have spotted the 'Weimar Triangle' alliance between Germany and Poland, confirming both (2) and (3) as integrated EU partners.
With reference to the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) between India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA), consider the following statements: 1. The EFTA bloc consists of Switzerland, Iceland, Norway, and Liechtenstein. 2. One of the primary strategic advantages of TEPA for India is the diversification of its import sources. 3. India maintained a trade surplus with the EFTA countries during the calendar year 2023. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Why this matches: Practicing this would have clearly defined Switzerland as part of EFTA, not the EU, knocking out options 1, 2, and 4.
In the context of European geopolitics and diplomatic history, the 'Weimar Triangle' refers to a trilateral grouping established to promote cooperation between which of the following nations?
Why this matches: You would have nailed the connection between Germany and Poland in European integration, making Choice C the only logical answer.